spike tassel
| In a parallel way, I suggest that it is no wonder, with such a diplomatic lack in WWII, that the bombs were dropped. |
an example of diplomatic civility -
give me lack of diplomacy and civilty any day
Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?
by Spike Tassel 163 Replies latest watchtower beliefs
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quietlyleaving
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possible-san
Black Sheep.
You had misinterpreted Chalam's post
Although I appreciate your advice, please understand the meaning of my words (unskilled English).
The thing which I want to say is "You should not ask a question by such strange logic in order to claim your justification."
possible
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Black Sheep
I know what you are saying, Possible. That is how I know that you still have not understood Chalam's post.
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oompa
Otwo: However,in recent times at least ten fragments of the OT have been found, some of which are the oldest copies available, that did preserve the Tetragrammaton, usually in ancient Hebrew characters.
Why is it that they don't tell us anything whatsoever about these "at least 10 fragments" ? I will bet that these fragments are Hebrew translations of the Greek scriptures. Until they say something about the research, the details of what scriptures they are, how old they appear to be, I won't have to take this stuff seriously.
Me: Otwo, am i missing something here? the quote identifies them as OT...so not of the greek scripts.....WT got all giggly over the few fragments of greek septuigent bits that had the hebrew version of yhwh.......never mind that 99.9 percent of the greek sept manuscripts do not contain it...they argue that jesus would have been reading a greek sept with the name jehovah in it
how come nobody likes my WT source material???.......you gotta argue what the WT says dont ya???..........oompa......WT kicks ass!
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possible-san
Black Sheep.
Probably, you not only cannot understand my English, but cannot understand other persons' text.
You who cannot understand the meaning of my words well cannot advise me.
I think that my sense that "you are arrogant" is correct.
No, you are dull. -
Spike Tassel
Mr. Possible
Mr. Possible [i.e. possible-san] is concerned with what Stephen [a.k.a. Chalam] writes
John 14:6 (New International Version)
6 Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.
Now if "those that call on the name of Jehovah will be saved" then John 14:6 makes no sense i.e. "No one comes to the Father expect through Jehovah"?!The Bible teaches that Jehovah is the Source of Everlasting Life and that Jesus is the Mediator of the New Covenant by which both the Spiritual Israel [a.k.a. "Israel of God", "little flock"] and their subjects [a.k.a. the "great crowd" of "other sheep"] must "go through". Our prayers are formulated to reflect this truth, praying to "Jehovah", "in the name of Jesus" [a.k.a. "through Jesus"]. Our gaining everlasting life depends on our on-going learning about both Jehovah and Jesus Christ, as a fullsome comprehension of John 17:3,6 and Matthew 4:4,7,10 [and the related OT scriptures] bears out.
Stephen [a.k.a. Chalam] is right in saying that "No one comes to the Father expect through Jehovah" makes no sense.
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Chalam
Hi Spike,
Thanks for the post.
Stephen [a.k.a. Chalam] is right in saying that "No one comes to the Father expect through Jehovah" makes no sense.
I agree!
So why does the NWT says this?
Romans 10: 13 For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”
That makes no sense in the same way that inserting "Jehovah" in John 14:6 does not.
The bible is clear, there is one way to the Father, one name to call upon, one truth, one life.
Now this makes perfect sense to me.
Romans 10:13 (New International Version)
13 for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved."
For who is Lord?
Romans 10:9 (New International Version)
9 That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
1 Corinthians 12:3 (New International Version)
3 Therefore I tell you that no one who is speaking by the Spirit of God says, "Jesus be cursed," and no one can say, "Jesus is Lord," except by the Holy Spirit.
All the best,
Stephen
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OnTheWayOut
Good catch, Oompa. I ain't no rocket surgeon.
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possible-san
Spike Tassel.
Stephen [a.k.a. Chalam] is right in saying that "No one comes to the Father expect through Jehovah" makes no sense.
Although your reply is thankful, this remark of yours may make Mr. Chalam carry a good thing too far (it goes to his head).
He is a Trinitarian who believes strongly "Jesus is Jehovah (Jesus = Jehovah)."
If so, why is it "makes no sense" for him?
Is not he only replacing "Jesus" with "Jehovah"?Clearly, he is only doing the malicious question, in order to embarrass you.
Well, about the Scriptures which Mr. Chalam has quoted, please buy the "Hebrew New Testament" which I introduced, and examine it.
Then, all his explanation will collapse.In addition, although I explained in this forum repeatedly, in the Trinity doctrine, Jesus is not Jehovah.
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Spike Tassel
Yes, Stephen, saying "Jesus is Lord" is true on ONE level. However, LORD and Lord must remain clearly differentiated.
At Psalm 110:1, Jehovah is represented by name [even if camouflaged as LORD, as in the KJV (1769 standard) and the NIV] whereas Jesus is represented by a title; on the other hand, at John 17:3, Jehovah is represented by a title whereas Jesus is represented by name.
Both at Psalm 110:1 and at John 17:3, the same 2 persons are named, but the unwary may be bewildered if they are not thus informed.