What happened in Judea under Alexander and afterwards under the Ptolemies and Selucids? Why were entirely new Greek words, like "Synagogue" coined?
Was Paul's Primary Language Greek?
by AGuest 13 Replies latest jw friends
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Narkissos
Obviously enough, any Spirit going by the name of "JAHESHUA MISCHAJAH" both should and cannot stay clear of linguistics...
What the hades sheol was Paul thinking when he wrote: "the spirits of prophets are subject to the prophets"? (1 Corinthians 14:32)
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AGuest
May you have peace!
Although I probably shouldn't have, to avoid confusion, I used Hebrew and Aramaic interchangably. I do understand that they are not entirely the same; however, the primary language spoken in Judea at the time in question was a hybrid of the two. Indeed, Aramiac was around for close to another millenium. Greek (and later, Latin) were primary the languages of the merchants, aristocrats, learned, etc., among the Jews. The people of the land, however, and those who resisted Greek and Roman rule continued with this hybrid, considered their "native" tongue. Many religious leaders, some of the most pious among them, as well as those who were greatly religious... also used the "old" Hebrew, which the considered a "holy" language.
As for the term, "synagogue," I did not immediately understand that you were asking why is it that Jews today call their meeting places by a Greek term. Here is what I heard: originally there was no name, as there was no need to gather in this way because of the temple; however, when they were exiled, the Jews still "gathered," albeit not in a specific public place. The Greek-speaking Jews coined the term because there was a word in Greek that described what they were doing. But at the time the word only referred to WHAT they were doing, not WHERE. When specific places began to be built the description stuck and later came to be accepted as the name of the place itself (similar to how, with the early 'christians' the 'church' or 'congregation' referred to the PEOPLE... and not the place where they gathered, as it does today). My understanding is that not Jews refer(ed) to it as a synagogue, then and now. Apparently, there are other names (i.e., temple, shul, JCC, etc.).
I hope this helps.
Peace to you!
A slave of Christ,
SA
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AGuest
May you have peace!
What the hades sheol was Paul thinking when he wrote: "the spirits of prophets are subject to the prophets"? (1 Corinthians 14:32)
I will explain it as my Lord explained it to "us" (me and other like me) when "things" first started with "us" (1997-1998):
In the early start of the faith, people not only received holy spirit but also the "gifts" of that spirit. And it was a lot of people at that time. As a result, when they would come together, so much would go on because everyone wanted to )or was compelled to) "share" their "gift." So, you had folks speaking in tongues, while others interperted, while others were prophesying, while others were share what they heard from the Spirit, etc. All at once! As a result, it was a bit chaotic. So, Paul tried to establish some kind of ORDER, so that those who had not yet received the spirit and its gifts would not be overwhelmed and confused.
Now, SOME of the gifts are subject to others of the gifts. For example, one may have the gift of speaking in tongues. But it's rare (I have not seen it) where that same one also has the gift of INTERPRETING his/her tongue(s). Usually, that gift (interpreting tongues) is reserved for another (so that the one speaking in tongues can be "in spirit" entirely and not have to try and remember what was said). Thus, speaking in tongues is subject to intrepretation of the tongue(s).
Another example, is the gift of powerful works which is subject to the gift of wisdom, as one needs to be SURE that the use of such gift is always done in love. Sometimes, it can be done out of impulse (think Moses and the rock), which could prove detriminetal, if not disastrous.
The gift of prophesying, however, is NOT subject to any other gift. Thus, while each who has such gift must speak in turn (i.e., allow the one speaking to finish, and/or if the prophesy you have is the same as that of another you should remain silent), the prophesy is not subject to another prophet's view/interpretation... or any other gift. The spirit of that prophet is subject only to him/herself.
There is a stop-gap, however: false prophesying is a grave and serious thing, and can even perhaps be blasphemy against the Spirit. That is because, contrary to popular belief, prophesying is NOT just saying something is going to happen in the future. Along with that, prophesying is (1) saying ANYTHING by means of holy spirit, and (2) saying ANYTHING the Spirit directs you to say, and both of these can be done "falsely" (i.e., saying that the Spirit directed you when it didn't, or that you were speaking by holy spirit when you weren't).
Anyway, I hope this helps... and I bid you peace!
A slave of Christ,
SA