Hi dig692 & slappy,
particularly the part about omniscience. If each of the three possess that attribute, then how does one account for Matt 24:36 "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone" or the other scripture that escapes me at this time where Jesus says "the Father is greater than I am" -- Is this because Jesus was in the nature of Man and no longer God?
Appreciate the responses all!
Indeed, good question but for me, Philippians 2 has answered this already. Just to break it down, verse by verse.
Philippians 2:5-11 (New International Version)
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
Simply, Jesus being equal with God (the Father) did not hold on to that position.
7 but made himself nothing,
taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
Jesus became as a man and came to serve, the Father and us.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
and became obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
And this is how He served us all. Notice the obedience "to death".
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
In serving, He became exalted. Jesus' name it the above every name. None is more significant, not "Jehovah", not YHWH, none.
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
Everyone will worship Jesus one day, in the physical and in the spiritual realm.
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father.
Note that Jesus is Lord, not the Father but to the glory of the Father.
Now, I heard and interesting teaching recently with regards to if Jesus is now omniscient and "knows all things".
OK, notice that Jesus humbled Himself "to death". Note, the NIV is a little loose in the translation stakes. See here for a tighter translation
Philippians 2:8 (English Standard Version)