John 20:28 response to Garyneal

by Blue Grass 41 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Blue Grass.

    Since I do not speak English at all, I cannot express correctly the thing which I want to say.
    But I say in English for you.

    If you believe it wasn't an exclamation, why do you think virtually ever English Bible translates it that way.

    I think that your question is reasonable.
    But, first of all, I think that your "attitude" is wrong.

    You did not answer to my simple question.
    But, why can you expect that I will answer to your question?

    Moreover, "If you believe it"?
    You are incorrect in respect of how to use a term.
    Neither I nor other people have said that "believe it."

    You yourself said like this.

    "If you're going to tell me I'm wrong at least post a link or give a source of a person with knowledge of Greek who disagrees with what I say."

    Therefore, I showed it.
    But, do you say "you believe it" to the person who showed you those materials?

    You should correct that arrogant attitude of yours first.
    You said like this in the first post.

    "but if anyone else with knowledge of the Greek language have anything to add that will be greatly appreciated."

    But that is a lie.
    You do not appreciate.
    And you are thankful to nobody.

    possible

  • Blue Grass
    Blue Grass
    She is an actual school-trained scholar.

    Actually Leolaia admitted she only studied Greek for 2 years at a University, that's hardly a scholar.

    John 13:13 uses the nominative ho kurios where grammatically the accusative would be expected (as an object of phóneite) if it were not used as a term of address; the use of the nominative thus shows that this is an articular nominative of address.

    That's just flat out wrong, I would explain why but I don't think with just 2 years of "University Level" Greek you would understand.

    All of you guys seem to be suffering from the same problem, those who still believe in the Bible and those who don't alike. You guys left the JWs where you guys whole heartily believed some ridiculous non-scriptural teachings such as 1914,144,000 etc. Now some of you joined another man made religion Protestantism/Catholicism and now fully support and defend some more ridiculous teachings as much as you did the JW teachings! When you read John Chapter 20, you are so brainwashed that you can even see that the whole chapter is about Thomas finally believing Jesus was resurrected, not Jesus' identity. When you read Jesus response to Thomas in verse 29:

    John 20:29 Then Jesus told him, "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."

    What did he believe after saying "my lord and my God"? Did he believe Jesus was God or believe Jesus was resurrected?

    John 20:24Now Thomas (called Didymus), one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came. 25 So the other disciples told him, "We have seen the Lord!" But he said to them, "Unless I see the nail marks in his hands and put my finger where the nails were, and put my hand into his side, I will not believe it."

    It is so obvious that Thomas didn't believe Jesus was God but finally believed after doubting that he was resurrected by God. You guys however can not see this because your Pastor tells you what to believe much like when you were still JWs. None of you have changed. You guys still need somebody to tell you what to believe because you still don't have ability to think for yourselves. And for those of you who are atheist but still insist the Bible teaches immortal soul and the trinity, you guys are just bitter and refuse to admit the watchtower was right on any subject and thus resort to defending this nonsense. I would continue this discussion with you but it's clear it will be a waste of my time. It would be like trying to explain to a JW that there is no anointed and earthly class, they are brainwashed into to believing garbage and so are you. Besides that you guys lack knowledge. You never gained any knowledge being a JW and you aren't gaining any as a Protestant/Catholic.Everything you learned about the Bible in your life was through someone telling you what to believe, not through any studying or research on your part. You guys are sheep who can't think for themselves. If you really want to learn truth stop with the man made tradition and churches and stick to the scriptures because right you guys don't have a clue.

  • garyneal
    garyneal
    That's just flat out wrong, I would explain why but I don't think with just 2 years of "University Level" Greek you would understand.

    Wow, just flat out dismiss Laolaia's understanding. Quite rude if you ask me. Perhaps you can enlighten us on your educational level in the Greek language. If memory serves me correctly, Fred Franz did not have that much more in terms of qualifications than Laolaia and yet he was the chief translator of a version of the Bible trusted by 7 million Jehovah's Witnesses.

    Regarding your last paragraph, all I have to say is:

    What a blanket generalization of all of us who don't readily agree with what you are saying.

    When people on this thread were accusing you of being a Jehovah's Witness, I tried not to jump to that conclusion and instead consider the information you present as to whether or not it is indeed correct. I even tried to prove you right by going over the enactments of the event in my mind. I was picturing Jesus appearing and Thomas happily exclaiming, "My Lord and My God!" just as you stated he did to even see if it was even plausible. I spent about 3 hours last night poking around the Internet looking for information about John 20:28 and how to interpret the event based on the grammar in the Greek.

    I don't believe the WTS is wrong about everything, in fact, they get a lot of things right. However, when they do get some things wrong, rather than admit it they throw around "new light," invoke the "we're not perfect" excuse, and even go as far as blame their followers (read 1975).

    You guys still need somebody to tell you what to believe because you still don't have ability to think for yourselves.

    Wrong. If this were true I would be a diehard fundamentalist as I use to attend a fundamentalist church where the pastor was constantly telling the people how true his church was as opposed to other churches. I would also be calling the KJV Bible "the word of God" as these people believe that this is the only translation that is accurate.

    I would continue this discussion with you but it's clear it will be a waste of my time.

    I'm sorry you feel this way. You did indeed get me thinking on this and I would like to know more about the Greek language but right now I am too busy with my life to pursue it. Therefore, I have no choice but to rely on others who did take the time to learn it and base my decisions on that.

    If you really want to learn truth stop with the man made tradition and churches and stick to the scriptures because right you guys don't have a clue.

    While it is true that a lot of what I know did come from preachers and teachers I have had in the past I have been doing nothing but reasoning on the scriptures alone for the past 5 to 6 months. You sound like my wife in a sense that she thinks that everything I know about the witnesses comes from you guys and that I have done zero real (read WT approved) research on them in spite of my spending the last six years doing off an on "Bible studies" with them.

    I've been reading passages of the Bible using many different English language translations and consulting the interlinears where there is confusion to determine as best as possible what the Bible really says concerning some of the WT teachings as well as teachings from the pastors of my past and present.

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Blue Grass.

    I think that you are a really good-for-nothing.

    You said in the first post.

    "but if anyone else with knowledge of the Greek language have anything to add that will be greatly appreciated."

    But this is quite a lie.

    Rather, you were not thankful to other people.
    And finally, you blamed and slandered.

    You are very arrogant and your knowledge about Greek is meaningless.
    And it is not correct.
    In fact, Watch Tower society and Greek scholars are also proving that your explanation is incorrect.

    possible

    P.S.
    I am not a fundamentalist.
    And I do not accept that historical Jesus is God.
    Historically, I think that there is no resurrected person, IMO.

    I merely say that John 20:28 is a "vocative."
    Your explanation is full of mistakes and prejudice.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia
    Actually Leolaia admitted she only studied Greek for 2 years at a University, that's hardly a scholar.

    I didn't "admit" that. I stated it. What's your background in Greek? Nor have I ever claimed to be a scholar of Greek or the Bible (tho I am a scholar of linguistics which I currently teach at university level), and I have always corrected those who said otherwise. I also didn't say that I studied Greek only at a university; I also study it along with other languages on my own.

    That's just flat out wrong, I would explain why but I don't think with just 2 years of "University Level" Greek you would understand.

    That's a nice insult, but you fail to explain why. I do wonder if you have the knowledge to explain why because your OP, as I pointed out, is painfully naive about Greek cases. You have not yet acknowledged the fact that your OP ignored wholly the use of the nominative for address in Greek (which also exists in Latin), which undermines the specific argument you gave. Of course, someone as ignorant about Greek as myself couldn't possibly explain further why the accusative would be expected in John 13:13 if the phrase in question didn't have vocative or appellative force (both falling under the nominative of address), hmmm???? Gee, let's see if I could possibly support my argument. I fired up the TLG (you know what that is, right?) and did a syntactic search for verbs similar to what is in John 13:13 with the accusative me directly following. Notice there that the nominative is not in apposition to another nominative and the other uses of independent nominatives (e.g. pendent, absolute, etc.) do not fit in that context as the appellative does, licensed as it is by the verb (a verb of calling). So does the name of what a person is called occur in the accusative if it is non-appellative? Seems that Josephus has Naomi telling Ruth, " 'you might more truly call me Mara (Maran kaleite me)', for Naomi signifies 'happiness' in the Hebrew language and Mara signifies 'sorrow' (sémainei Mara de odunén)" (Antiquitates 5.323). Here the feminine name is Mara when used in the nominative and Maran when used in the accusative, and there the use is clearly non-appellative. And what is this? Photius in his commentary on the gospel of John parapharases what Jesus said in response to the grumblers in John 6 (who asked, "Is this not the son of Joseph?"), "you call me the son of Joseph (kaleite me huion tou Ióséph)" (Comentarii in Joannem, fr. 43.8), seems that here the accusative is used, doesn't it? But what do I know. Oh but look at this! Gregorius Nyssenus even paraphrases John 13:13 in a non-appellative fashion: "For he said, 'You call me Lord and Teacher' (humeis kaleite me kurion kai didaskalon)" (Contra Eunomium 3.8.45). Gee, he rephrases it in the accusative! Why would he ever want to do that?

    And funny too how my "flat-out wrong" opinion just happens to be echoed widely among Bible "scholars"! Just a few I looked up:

    "In the mouth of the Disciples, ho kurios corresponded with the title rb, and didaskalos with mr'; how decidedly Christ claimed this high position among them, is shown by Matt. xxiii. 8. The nominative in Greek and Hebrew is also used for the vocative" (August Tholuck, Commentary on the Gospel of John, 1859, p. 322).

    "At ver. 13, you call me properly signifies: you thus designate me when you address me" (Frederic L. Godet, Commentary on the Gospel of St. John, Vol. 3, 1896, p. 107).

    "The nominative is thus sometimes retained even when in apposition with other cases, as in John 13:13, phóneite me ho didaskalos kai kurios, where it is practically a quotation" (A. T. Robertson, A Short Grammar of the Greek New Testament, 1909, p. 90).

    "phónein (see on 1.48) is the word regularly used by Jn. for calling a person by his name or title.... ho didaskalos, ho kurios are called by the grammarians titular nominatives" (John H. Bernard, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Gospel according to St. John, Vol. 2, 1967, p. 465).

    "ho didaskalos kai ho kurios. These words are nominative, not accusative (second object of phóneite); they are therefore the articular nominative used for the vocative; cf. M. 1, 70; B.D., §§ 143, 147" (C. K. Barrett, Gospel According to St. John, 1978, p. 443).

    "Observe that ho didaskalos and ho kurios are nominative for vocative" (George Beasley-Murray, Word Biblical Commentary on John, 1999, p. 229).

    "The 'articular nominative' (not an accusative) here functions as a vocative" (Craig S. Keener, The Gospel According to John, 2003, p. 910).

    All of you guys seem to be suffering from the same problem, those who still believe in the Bible and those who don't alike. You guys left the JWs where you guys whole heartily believed some ridiculous non-scriptural teachings such as 1914,144,000 etc. Now some of you joined another man made religion Protestantism/Catholicism and now fully support and defend some more ridiculous teachings as much as you did the JW teachings! When you read John Chapter 20, you are so brainwashed .... Everything you learned about the Bible in your life was through someone telling you what to believe, not through any studying or research on your part. You guys are sheep who can't think for themselves.

    This tells us quite well what you think of us, but it does not make a logical argument.

    When you read John Chapter 20, you are so brainwashed that you can even see that the whole chapter is about Thomas finally believing Jesus was resurrected, not Jesus' identity.

    How odd, because little brainwashed old me thought that what Thomas had trouble believing is that the other disciples saw the Lord (i.e. the identity of the man they saw as the Lord). Oh wait, that's what it says in v. 24: "So the other disciples told him, 'We have seen the Lord!' ". So when Thomas confesses "My Lord and my God," the antecedent for "Lord" (kurios) is right there in v. 24. Thomas is finally acknowledging that this person that all the other disciples already believed was the "Lord" IS IN FACT THE LORD. Saying it to his face even. Kind of like a nominative of address. Oh wait, I'm a brainwashed sheep who cannot think for myself.

  • Black Sheep
    Black Sheep
    It is so obvious that Thomas didn't believe Jesus was God but finally believed after doubting that he was resurrected by God. You guys however can not see this because your Pastor tells you what to believe much like when you were still JWs.

    Firstly, I don't have a pastor. I am not even a Christian. I consider the Bible to be an interesting, but incomplete, collection of ancient writings from a culture that I am not descended from. My interest stems from having been born into a high control Christian cult that most of my family still belongs to, and their penchant for denigrating the character of anyone, including myself, who doesn't obey the instructions of their leaders.

    I am interested in whether or not John 20 supports your version of God though. I don't believe it does. You have claimed that Thomas isn't talking to anyone. I would like to see this interaction portrayed, according to the script provided in the Bible, by someone who supports your version of the event.

    When I asked my JW father to do this, he dropped the 'and', therefore not sticking to the script, or to the reasoning supplied in his religious books. I am sure that even you don't think that was kosher. Let's see your version? Grab a web cam/digicam/whatever and a mate and give us a demo.

    Break a leg

    Chris

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Thank you, Leolaia.
    Probably, nobody has doubt to your scholarship/learning/knowledge.

    I think that you do not need to explain it hard.
    You are an intellectual lady, and probably it is a fact.

    Please use that intellect of yours when we have a constructive discussion.
    We are always thankful to you.

    possible

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    Domo arigato, possible-san. :)

    I was reading the OP again and was noticed that Blue Grass, whose knowledge of Greek is so advanced that he doubts he could discuss points of grammar who has "only" studied Greek at the university level for two years, claims that there are just four cases in Greek, the nominative, genitive, accusative, and vocative. And he gives the form of the accusative as: Τον Κυριο. Huh. I could have sworn that the facts about such an elemental matter are totally different, but I suppose I will have to defer to Blue Grass' superior knowledge.

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Leolaia.

    I am pleasant to listen to your intellectual joke.
    (Unless we know Greek a little, we may be unable to understand your joke.)

    Well, since he is genius about Greek, he may be being able to advance a new theory which we do not know.
    He is great, isn't he?

  • VoidEater
    VoidEater

    So who was Thomas addressing?

    Brian May?

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