Greetings, dearest PSacto and Donuthole... and peace to you both! Since you two seem to having a most lively... and kind... discussion between you... I will bow out. I will leave you both with the thought, however, that you don't HAVE to rely on what is written... but can simply go to the One who would know about ALL of these things. Yes? Also, before I go, I would like to address one thing said by each of you, if I may. Dear PSacto, you asked:
Where is Lazarus identififed as Simon?
I offer the following:
1. Simon... the "leper"... lived in Bethany (Mathew 26:6)
2. Lazarus... who was "sick"... lived in Bethany (John 11:1)
3. Mary, Lazarus' sister, is the "woman" who wiped the feet of my Lord with her tears and hear... and greased the head of my Lord with expensive/perfumed oil... in "Simon [the leper's]" house (Matthew 26:7; Mark 14:3; John 11:2; John 12:3)
4. While Matthew and Mark refer to the householder as "Simon"... John makes no mention of this "Simon" but does mention "Lazarus" in the exact same setting (i.e., whose house they were staying in, as evidenced by Martha's "ministering" to them). Why would Martha minister (i.e., prepare and serve the meal, etc.) in another man's house? Why would not THAT man's wife/servants do so? And why would Mary also be there?
5. Lazarus is the ONLY one who is directly identified as the one who my Lord loved/had affection for (John 11:3, 36)
6. Would Christ really NOT choose, as his disciple, someone he loved... had affection for... preferred... the one he actually shed tears over?
I offer to you that Lazarus is the same as Simon, the leper... who is the same as Simon... the Zealot (i.e., which is the English word for the Greek word, "kananios"... which has been mistransliterated into "Canaanite" or "Cananae'an" both of which are errors). I also offer that I have not read Ben Witherington... but share with you what I received from my Lord, after another dear one asked me about it as a result of what HE read by Mr. Witherington.
Dear Donuthole... you state:
GOJ has Jesus being executed before the passover meal while the other gospels have it afterword.
I am not sure I "see" that in the account, dear one. My understanding is that the account recorded at John 13:1-30 corresponds with the account recorded at Matthew 26:17-30, as corroborated by what is recorded at John 13:26, 27 and Matthew 26:21-23. I do believe that what is recorded at John 14:1-16:33 took place DURING the meal, not after... but not the prayer of Chapter 17; my understanding is that that took place AFTER they left the meal and was the prayer he made while he was in Gethsemane.
In relation to what you state here, though, my Lord was not impaled until AFTER the meal (recorded in Chapter 13), as shown starting at John 19:14. Can you clarify, please? Thank you!
And, again, peace to you both!
YOUR servant and a slave of Christ,
SA