Franz himself, under oath, lied in a trial about his own understanding of Hebrew.
How?
This is what he said:
Q.Have you also made yourself familiar with Hebrew?
A.Yes....
Q.So that you have a substantial linguistic apparatus at your command?
A.Yes, for use in my biblical work.
Q. I think you are able to read and follow the Bible in Hebrew, Greek, Latin, Spanish, Portuguese, German, and French?
A.Yes.
So he stated that he is "familiar with Hebrew" and that he is "able to read and follow the Bible in Hebrew". Very well.
Then he was questioned:
Q.You, yourself, read and speak Hebrew, do you?
A.I do not speak Hebrew.
Q.You do not?
A.No.
He pointed out that he did not "speak" Hebrew. This does not contradict his earlier statement. He tacitly affirms that he reads Hebrew but clarifies that he does not speak it. There is nothing about speaking Hebrew in the earlier statement, which only pertained to the reading of Hebrew. If one reads Hebrew, one is certainly "familiar with Hebrew".
Then he was asked:
Q. Can you, yourself, translate that into Hebrew?
A. Which?
Q. That fourth verse of the Second Chapter of Genesis? A. You mean here?
Q. Yes?
A. No, I won’t attempt to do that.
First of all, this is a refusal to perform an ad hoc translation on the stand, as opposed to stating that he was unable to do so if he tried. More importantly, this was a translation into Hebrew, not into English which is what was involved in his translation work and reading. Translating from English into Hebrew involves quite a different skill than translating into English, and it is much more difficult (particularly with a language that one does not speak fluently). This may well reflect a limitation in his Hebrew. But it is perfectly possible to produce a translation of Hebrew into English without knowing how to go into the other direction.