upon what basis can we believe that it is "inspired of God?"
We cannot, dear MS (the greatest of love and peace to you!), with the exception of the Revelation. We can KNOW that the Revelation was inspired because it SAYS it was: it tells HOW John received it (from Christ, through an angel (Michael) while he was in spirit) and that he was told BY Christ to write it. Now, some of the others (excluding Luke's gospel and account of the Apostles acts) may have been the result of information the writer received from the Holy Spirit... which recalled to the writer's mind things that had taken place... but none SAY that. And we KNOW Paul wasn't led by the Holy Spirit (contrary to what he states) at the time of writing... because his writings conflict with what Christ taught and, at times, each other. Paul simply wrote what he BELIEVED... which CHANGED... as he was further led by the Holy Spirit. But, due to the "Pharisee" in him, he OFTEN wrote things founded IN that teaching. Which often caused a lot of problems... either congregationally or between him and others, including the Apostles.
See, this is where we disagree Shelby :)
Greetings, my dear PSacto... and the greatest of love and peace to you! I think perhaps you misunderstand my comment (I hope you did). I did not state that all "that's in the Bible" is inspired, because it is not. However, all SCRIPTURE... which is, according to our Lord, "Moses, the Prophets, and the Psalms"... is indeed inspired. Now, are ALL of the books attributed to certain "prophets" the Prophets? Uh-uh, no, they are not. And are all of the Psalms included in the Bible considered "Pslams" as our Lord considered them? Again, uh-uh.
I think that TODAY we put a different definition of inspired than they did in those days.
We DO. But when asking if all "scripture" is inspired... don't we have to go by what they did IN those days... the says during which scripture was either written... or consulted by the Apostles? I mean, since the Apostles are the FOUNDATION of the "temple"... shouldn't it be about what THEY considered to be "scripture"... and "inspired"? And Paul was NOT one of those apostles who make up the "foundation."
That is why in many of the passages, they point out that they were in Spirit as opposed to it being assumed.
Or... they point it out because it was true... and didn't point it out because it was not and so the writing is not "scripture"?
On top of that, the spirit that was poured onto the writer was still "interpreted" through the writer and not always as well as it could have been.
Ummmm... here, I have to disagree with you, dear one. Intepretation... belongs to God. And so, the Holy Spirit would NOT have given the writer a "revelation" that the writer had to interpret. Such ones were to write... just as they saw and heard. Often, they DIDN'T understand. But that was not their task, to understand. Theirs was simply to write... what they saw and heard.
John's excessive imagery is a fine example of that.
Exactly! As was Ezekiel's, Isaiah's, etc.
There were MANY writings and books in the OT and not all where viewed as "inspired word of God" and those that were became "canon".
Absolutely! I totally agree! That they became/are canon, however, does NOT make them "scripture." Indeed, that's why our Lord SAID, "Woe, to you, scribes!" Because there were scriptures that were altered, edited, tampered with... scripture that was left out... and writings that weren't scripture that were included. Long before the current Bible canon (e.g., the Septuagint).
Enouch for exampel was NOT viewed as such, though it shoudl have been.
Yep!
This means that the people of THOSE times already made a distinction between "inspired by God" and "inspired Word of God".
I'm not sure what you mean, here...
God was their inspiration, yes, but not all scripture was "god breathed".
And these two definitions... both of which are WRONG... are the problem. "Scripture" is neither that were God was the inspiration NOR that which is God-breathed. The scribes, unled by Holy Spirit that THEY were... didn't understand what "inspired" meant. It means that the writer is IN SPIRIT when the "revelation" is received. I implore you: read Isaiah. Ezekiel. Jeremiah. John's revelation. The Psalms. And "Moses" is going to be hard because it ain't all there (the Pentateuch is NOT "Moses").
Unless of course we do believe that God finds shrimp an abomination and that he was "fine" with Lots's daughters "raping" their Father.
I am not sure what your position is, here. Bottom feeders were an "abomination" in that Israel could have been poisoned by eating it. Didn't have to be all of Israel... just some. Shellfish is a risky diet source for many people, even today. And I can't see where He would have been "fine" with what Lot's daughters did, but it happened. They were not Israel, however. Lot was Israel's cousin, not brother.
Again, I think you and I are crossing definitions of scripture, dear one. I do NOT believe that everything in the Bible is "scripture." Not at ALL. I know that the Bible CONTAINS scripture... and that ALL scripture, including that which is NOT in the Bible... is inspired: men wrote, while they were IN spirit... and borne along BY the Holy Spirit. Other than that, it's just a writing (which is where many get confused because the word "scripture" does mean "writing" - however, it pertains to CERTAIN writings: those that were penned when the writer was in spirit).
I hope this helps! Now, off to a business meeting... and peace to you all!
Your servant and a slave of Christ,
SA