Polytheism in the Book of Daniel, a late second temple religious document

by fulltimestudent 54 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • fulltimestudent
    fulltimestudent

    Response to TTTE.

    1. Origin of the word divine:
    Late Middle English: via Old French from Latin divinus, from divus 'godlike' (related to deus 'god').MORE Divine ‘godlike’ came via Old French from Latindivinus, from divus ‘godlike’ (related to deus ‘god’, source of Middle English deify).

    Reference: http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/divine

    Used as an adjective, the Oxford defines the word this way:

    adjective (diviner, divinest)1Of or like God or a god:

    --------------------
    And as a noun: (the Divine)Providence or God.

    In the descriptive verses in Daniel 7, the terms used are descriptive.
    In the case of the first figure, he is called, " The Ancient of Days"
    And the second, "one like the son of man."

    Are this figures supposed to represent humans or Divinities. (Gods)?
    You are (of course) entitled to give whatever meaning you wish to a word, but the plain English meaning is as a reference to "the/a God"
    So some translations render the controversial text in John 1:1 by using the word divine in lieu of "God", or, "a god."

    Here's a quotation from Wikipedia:
    Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render part of the verse as "...and the Word was divine."

    An Orthodox Bible Commentary notes: "This second theos could also be translated ‘divine’ as the construction indicates "a qualitative sense for theos".

    Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1

    I cite that verse, not to sidetrack into that controversy, but simply to give an example of the use of the Englsih word, Divine, by some translators.


    Therefore when you argue:

    "Now Boyarin makes a fundamental mistake as almost all of us do when he said...
    "What this text projects is a second divine figure, to whom will be given eternal dominion of the entire world. .
    There is no second “divine figure” in view here as there is no first “divine figure” in view. He has wrongly used the word divine from our language to try to describe something from ancient Hebrew."

    I ask simply, according to English usage, is the word 'divine,' out of place? I don't think that can be argued. All the English words that can be used, are English and not original.

    What word do you think Boyarin should have used?




  • EdenOne
    EdenOne

    For an interesting perspective of diversity of deities in ancient religion of Yahweh and how traces of it were left scattered in the OT, have a look at Michael S. Heiser's website The Divine Council. Are you familiar with the term "henotheism"?

    Eden

  • True to the End
    True to the End

    Hi You said

    Can it be stated this way, that you researched the words, that the authors of the ancient document used, and which are often translated by the English word, 'god.'

    Yep that would be a good way of putting it, because language evolves. Often, what we understand today by a word is not what was originally meant. The word “god” as we know it never appeared in the ancient texts. The meaning of the ancient words evolved to mean god

    That holds true for so many words. Is it not wisdom on our part to try to understand what the original writer was saying and not project into their thoughts what we think they were saying.

    To me you have done the same thing that Boyarin has done. Looked at a relatively modern word that has been derived form what has been mistaken used of the ancient Hebrew and Greek

    To understand any piece of writing it is good to know something about the author, their culture and time of living, general use of the words THEY used.

    I want to use two recently modern examples of knowing what an author was intending.

    Lets assume that the following quote is from two different people from two different backgrounds. Not knowing the backgrounds could leave us with “egg on our face” if were attempting to explain this sentence to someone else. As you read this sentence what is the very first thought that comes to your mind.

    They went out and had a gay time”

    Were the people just having a pleasant fun time, or were they engaged in some form of same sex activity?


    If when discussing that sentence with someone else, and I used the wrong meaning of "gay" - what a mistake.

    The only way to know what was meant is to have more details. What did the writer mean by the word?

    Here is something else. My grandmother once tells me

    That was a wicked thing to do.”

    A few years ago my teenage son came home from high school and made a similar comment, but the meanings are completely opposite.

    My grandmother meant that I had done something bad. My son meant that he had done something fun and exciting. (Its been a while since I have heard the word “wicked” used as my son did)

    We, today, generally understand the English use of the word divine to mean that it relates to God – a supernatural being.

    That explanations keeps going back to the idea of what WE, today, understand by the word god.

    I keep coming back to the ORIGINAL meaning of “el” and “elohim” and the Greek “theo”

    El" (the basis for the extended root ʾlh) is usually derived from a root meaning "to be strong" and/or "to be in front". http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Elohim

    el, meaning "a Mighty One", strength, powerful one.” http://assemblyoftrueisrael.com/Documents/WordsandtermsintheScriptures.html#e

    and though scholars are not agreed on the point, the root-meaning most probably is "the strong or mighty one."

    http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/06608x.htm

    El - 1 applied to men of might and rank, mighty one of the nations

    Brown-Driver-Briggs

    strength; as adjective, mighty; great, idol, might(-y one), power, strong.

    Strongs Hebrew Lexicon

    Christians profess belief in the Bible. Yet the word “God” never appears in the original language of the Bible. Instead, such words as Yahweh, Elohim, Ho Theos, or Ho Kurios are used.

    http://www.globalresearch.ca/misusing-the-word-god/24688

    In the Greek, the word God is a translation of the word "Theos" meaning Mighty One. This can refer to any person, man or in some cases non-man. The context determines the meaning. Assuming the word always refers to a non-man is error, as the Greek referred to many with authority as "Theos" (Mighty One).

    http://assemblyoftrueisrael.com/IsJesusGod/thewordgod.html

    Is “God” a strong one or a might one or a powerful one? For those of us that believe in God the answer is YES, of course he has that characteristics. However “el” and the plural “elohim” do NOT MEAN god. The words became applied to the an object of “worship” if it be a man, an idol or what we believe to be the creator of all things.

    Today Our narrow and limited understanding (usage) of the word god causes confusion as we see it applying to the creator, or someone claiming to hold such a position, where as the original words applied at mighty and powerful men or parts of creation such as trees and mountains.

    When we realise that the word god has a broader meaning the confusion disappears and we can understand why Mosses was called a god by his God and why angels are called gods by the same God that Moses followed, and why Jesus can be called a god by his God.

    You asked

    I ask simply, according to English usage, is the word 'divine,' out of place? I don't

    think that

    can be argued. All the English words that can be used, are English and not original.

    What word do you think Boyarin should have used?

    Yes in discussing Daniel it is out of place because Daniel did not have a concept of the word divine as we do toady. The word divine as we use it does not appear in the OT

    What word do you think Boyarin should have used?

    This is what you had quoted (I dont know how to make quotes as you have done) Notice the words I insert as they relate to the original ideas of the time. This is based on the Biblical Greek word “theios” which is wrongly rendered into English as divine. As the word theo carries the idea of “a mighty one” (not god) “theios” actually means “like a mighty one”. Unfortunately when the Bible was rendered into English, the word “god” had crept into our language and replaced the idea of “a mighty one”

    Boyarin writes: (pp.32,33)

    "What this text projects is a second divine (powerful or mighty) figure, to whom will

    be given eternal dominion of the entire world. ... it (the text) brings us close to at

    least some of the crucial characteristics of the figure named later, the Messiah or the

    Christ.

    What are these characteristics? He is divine. (he has the characteristics of a mighty and powerful one) He is in human form He may very well be portrayed as younger-appearing divinity (mighty and powerful one) than the Ancient of Days.

    He will be enthroned on high. He is given power and dominion, even sovereignty on earth.

    Boyarin then goes on to argue that these are the characteristics applied to Jesus as

    he will appear in the Gospels,

    Boyarin is correct in the characteristics of the Almighty one DO apply to Jesus in the Gospels because Jesus is the SON of the ALMIGHTY Might one.

    I will get to the word 'pelach'. and worship.

  • jhine
    jhine

    True To The End , are you a still active JW because your comments distinguishing Mighty from Almighty remind me of a conversation I had with Witnesses about Isaiah chapter 9

    I do not wish to wander off topic , just getting a feel for where you are coming from .

    Jan

  • True to the End
    True to the End

    Hi Jan

    I am not considered to be an active JW as I have not put a report in for more that 10 years.

  • jhine
    jhine

    True , I am going to recount the conversation ,short version , and what happened after. I think it might be relevant .We were discussing the Trinity and I mentioned Isaiah 9:6 particularly Mighty God and was told Jehovah is always Almighty so this cannot be used as a Trinitarian text.

    Now here I have to say that knowing that theWT has to resort to " misrepresentation " to support their position I figure.they know they are wrong . So I checked . In chapter 10 verse 21 Isaiah uses the same Hebrew phrase El gbur for Jehovah God . No mistaking the meaning .

    Also I just looked up el in Strong's and that definitely says that it is used for God .

    Jan

  • True to the End
    True to the End

    Hi Jan

    What we have here is along similar lines to what I was discussing with fulltimestudent above. We need to look at the original word meanings and usage in the Bible.

    In the KJV Isaiah 9:6 reads “his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God,

    The Hebrew of Isaiah 9:6 actually reads differently to our English.


    shall-be-called name-of-him wonderful councellor god strong

    What the original Hebrew is saying is that his name will include the titles “mighty strong one” or “mighty valiant one” or “mighty chief” or “mighty hero” (where mighty is from the word “el” and the other words are possibilities of “gbur” [gibbor])

    There is no definite article “the” in the Hebrew. It has been put in by the translators. Is the definite article implied by the context? Or does the grammar of the passage require that the definite article be used to make sense in English. No. The definite article is not implied nor is it necessary to make sense in the English translation. We are told that his name shall be called – and then we are given the titles that make up his name. All modern Bibles insert punctuation to help us understand what is written. The original writings did not have punctuation. Therefore any punctuation that any Bible uses is as the translator deems fitting. The KJV and many others put a comma between wonderful and counsellor thereby splitting the two titles up. However some Bibles keep them together

    “and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.” (ESV)

    “..He will be called, "Wonderful Counsellor," "Mighty God," "Eternal Father," "Prince of Peace"...” (GNB)

    “.. He will be named: Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.” (GWV)

    He will be named Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.” (HCSB)

    Which English reading seems to be the most appropriate?

    Here a re a few other variations. Please notice the words I have put in bold. Also, notice that none of these use the definite article “the”

    “His names will be: Amazing Counselor, Strong God, Eternal Father, Prince of Wholeness. (Mesage)

    “he has been named Wise Guide, Strong God, Father for ever, Prince of Peace.” (BBE)

    “And he shall be called Wonderful, counsellor, mighty potentate, Everlasting father, prince of peace;” (Noyes)

    The Hebrew word rendered god does not have the definite article before it. Nothing in the passage demands it and it is not necessary to make sense in English. It is just god. Well, at least god in English. As noted above in previous posts, the original ancient word “el” does not mean what we refer to as “god” but come to be used for that.

    The Hebrew word rendered as mighty in most of those translations and also as strong, is, as you suggest “gbur”. This word can be used on many different occasions including as to be referring to Jehovah. The actual meaning of the word according to Strings Hebrew Lexicon is “intensive from the same as 1397; powerful; by implication, warrior, tyrant: — champion, chief, X excel, giant, man, mighty (man, one), strong (man), valiant man. “

    (the Hebrew word 1397 that is mentioned there is “geber- properly, a valiant man or warrior; generally, a person simply: — every one, man, X mighty. )

    In the KJV this word appears 158 times. The KJV renders it in the following ways mighty 63 times, mighty man 68 times, strong 4, valiant 3, … ones 4, mighties 2, man 2, valiant men 2, strong man 1, upright man 1, champion 1, chief 1, excel 1, giant 1, men’s 1, mightiest 1, strongest 1;

    Here ar a few examples that you can check out at http://biblehub.com/interlinear/

    Ge 6:4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men <1368> which were of old, men of renown.

    Ge 10:8 And Cush begat Nimrod: he began to be a mighty one <1368> in the earth.

    Ge 10:9 He was a mighty <1368> hunter before the LORD: wherefore it is said, Even as Nimrod the mighty <1368> hunter before the LORD.

    Would you equate Nimrod with God?

    Jos 1:14 ... but ye shall pass before your brethren armed, all the mighty <1368> men of valour, and help them;

    Jos 6:2 ...and the mighty men <1368> of valour.

    Jos 8:3 and Joshua chose out thirty thousand mighty <1368> men of valour, <1368>

    Ru 2:1 And Naomi had a kinsman of her husband’s, a mighty <1368> man of wealth, of the family of Elimelech; and his name was Boaz.

    1Sa 2:4 The bows of the mighty men <1368> are broken, and they that stumbled are girded with strength.

    1Sa 9:1 ... a Benjamite, a mighty <1368> man of power.

    1Sa 14:52 And there was sore war against the Philistines all the days of Saul: and when Saul saw any strong <1368> man, or any valiant man, he took him unto him.

    1Sa 16:18 ... that is cunning in playing, and a mighty <1368> valiant man, and a man of war,

    1Sa 17:51 ... And when the Philistines saw their champion <1368> was dead, they fled.

    2Sa 1:19 The beauty of Israel is slain upon thy high places: how are the mighty <1368> fallen!

    1Ch 7:5 And their brethren among all the families of Issachar were valiant <1368> men of might, reckoned in all by their genealogies fourscore and seven thousand.

    .

    1Ch 9:26 For these Levites, the four chief <1368> porters, were in their set office, and were over the chambers and treasuries of the house of God.

    1Ch 11:12 .. the Ahohite, who was one of the three mighties <1368>.

    1Ch 11:19 ... Therefore he would not drink it. These things did these three mightiest <1368>.

    1Ch 11:24 .. and had the name among the three mighties <1368>.

    The point I have gone a long way around trying to make is that generally we accept and probably expect that translators have done the coring thing with their translations. I hope I have shown that we can not just accept what a Bible says without some idea of the original word meanings and usage.

    In Isaiah 10:21 we have the words “el gibbor”. In English it is generally rendered as “unto the mighty God.” (KJV) or “to the Mighty God.” (NIV) (Some Bibles do not capitalise mighty as the NIV and NWT has done)

    Alternatives

    to the Strong God.” (BBE)

    back to the Strong God.” (Message)

    to their mighty God.” (GNB) note has not used definite article “the”
    “to the mighty Potentate;” (Noyes)

    unto God the mighty one.” (TRC)

    The Hebrew reads “to (toward) god strong” Again there is no definite article but the vast majority of Bibles include it here. The questions to be ask are is it implied and is it necessary to make sense in English?

    We are told the the remnant are returning to someone of something. Without the definite article the sentence would read

    A remnant returneth — a remnant of Jacob, Unto mighty God.”

    Personally I do not think that the definite article is needed. In a strict Hebrew translation using original word meanings that would read “remnant shall-return remnant-of Jacob toward mighty strong one (or one of the other meanings of “gbbr”) It is word changes over time that we get might god in our English Bibles.

    There is nothing wrong with mighty God as long as understand what or who is being referred to.

    The God that the Israelites worshiped had a name represented by YHWH and he was indeed a mighty one. The wording a strong might one elevated him above just a might one, just as it elevates Jesus above just a mighty or a strong one.

    However Jesus is NEVER referred to as the ALMIGHTY. The Hebrew word “Shadday” rendered as almighty is only ever used of the God of Jesus. The Greek equivalent “pantokrator” again is only ever used of the God that Jesus worshiped. “Pantokrator” appears once in 2 Corinthians and 9 times in Revelation.

  • jhine
    jhine

    Hi , true . I have had to read your post a few times . you seem to be saying that El is not a word for God . As far as I can see it is .I have checked Strongs and looked on some Jewish web sites Hebrew Streams says , "the oldest Semetic word for God is El " .

    With respect all of the discussion about "the " being in the original or not seems like a JW smokescreen . I was just making the point that Isaiah uses the.same title for Jehovah God as for the Messiah .

    I look forward to the next post from Full-time student .

    Jan

  • True to the End
    True to the End

    Hi Jan.

    I am not quoting and JW material. All that I have said is from other sources.

    The first words in Strongs are “strength; as adjective, mighty;” for the Hebrew word “el”, it also goes on to tell us that it means “power, strong.” It does use the word god in its description because that is what we came to make it mean. The word god does not appear in the Hebrew writings at all. Our word “god” comes form a different language family all together.

    Language evolves and changes and there are relativity few languages that are “pure” as they now all seem to borrow words from other languages.

    We need to ask ourselves what did the ancient Hebrew writers mean when they wrote “el”? Use their definition not ours if we want to understand what they wrote

    The word “el” BECAME known as the word for god. That is what we accept it as today. HOWEVER..... Originally …. and that is where I keep going to … the original word meanings.... it just meant a mighty one or a strong one and actually had a wide variety of uses. Please read my earlier post to fulltime-student. I have several texts that show from the KJV that “el” and “elohim” actually refer to a mighty one. In an other post I have several links to places the define theses words

    In the right context we today understand the word god to refer to someone or something that is of a higher power to us and we “worship” (serve) them.

    The title mighty god is just that a title. At the moment there are many people with the title “president” or “king” or “queen”. There are not the same person. We can not use a title assigned opt one or more people to conclude that they are all the same.

    Don't get hung up on titles.

  • fulltimestudent
    fulltimestudent

    Let me start with the most recent points and move back.

    It's likely important to understand something about 'El' - a point I shall come back to. It is now realised that the background to Israel is to be found in the native peoples of Palestine, often referred to as Canaanites.

    I'm using Wikipedia for convenience, I don't think that scholastically, too many people would quibble over the following entry, discussing the deity, El.

    ʾĒl (written aleph-lamed, e.g. Ugaritic: 𐎛𐎍, Phoenician: 𐤋𐤀,[1] Hebrew: אל‎, Classical Syriac: ܐܠ, Arabic: إل‎ or إله, cognate toAkkadian: ilu) is a Northwest Semitic word meaning "god" or "deity" and it is used as the name of major Ancient Near East deities, including the God of the Hebrew Bible.
    In the Canaanite religion, or Levantine religion as a whole, El or Il was a god also known as the Father of humanity and all creatures, and the husband of the goddess Asherah as recorded in the clay tablets of Ugarit (modern Ra′s ShamrāArabic: رأس شمرا‎, Syria).[2]
    The bull was symbolic to El and his son Baʻal Hadad, and they both wore bull horns on their headdress.[3][4][5][6] He may have been a desert god at some point, as the myths say that he had two wives and built a sanctuary with them and his new children in the desert. El had fathered many gods, but most important were Hadad, Yam, and Mot

    Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/El_%28deity%29

    the entry continues: Cognate forms are found throughout the Semitic languages. They include Ugaritic ʾil, pl. ʾlm; Phoenician ʾl pl. ʾlm; Hebrew ʾēl, pl. ʾēlîm; Aramaic ʾl; Akkadian ilu, pl. ilānu.
    In northwest Semitic use, El was both a generic word for any god and the special name or title of a particular god who was distinguished from other gods as being "the god".[7]El is listed at the head of many pantheons.

    A lot of material has been found dealing with Canaanite religious beliefs and if anyone is not familiar with this material, a good essay to background El, may be this one:

    Canaanite Myth and Hebrew Epic: Essays in the History of the Religion of Israel

    The author is Frank Moore Cross Jr. who was the Hancock Professor of Hebrew and Other Oriental Languages Emeritus at Harvard University. (now deceased).

    Some prior post on this site by Leolaia will also provide some profound thoughts.

    Boyarin alludes to 'El' and his associated god Ba'l, as ancient ideas in Israelite thought, and suggests that they may be the pattern for the vision that the author of Daniel claims to have had. Boyarin cites an ancient text (for which I did not keep a reference).

    "Ba'l comes near in his shining storm cloud. 'El is the transcendent one"

    Whatever actually was the case in the past is always subject to discussion. Some say that the deity (God, Divinity) Baal, the god of war, became the Yahweh of the Israelites. I cite this to demonstrate historically Judaism developed from its Canaanite background with some different ideas about "God/El etc. But were the original ideas entirely forgotten? We may never know.

    My personal view, is that there is another possibility for second god-like figure in the Daniel 7 vision. In the fourth century BCE, Alexander the Great conquered the Persian Empire, which had included the Palestinian home of the Jews. Greek colonies were planted all over the empire. Hellenic thought diffused throughout the empire, from Greece down to Egypt and from the Mediterranean seacoast east to present day Afghanistan and the borders of India.

    If you're not familiar with that process of Hellenic colonisation, may I suggest Elias Bickerman's, "The Jews in the Greek Age." or Lee I. Levines, "Judaism & Hellenism in Antiquity, Conflict or Congruence."

    I'm suggesting that the model for the Daniel vision of two God's, one senior, one junior may be found in the Greek Pantheon where Zeus was the chief divinity, but there were others who were still 'gods' but subject to Zeus. For example, Apollo, the Greek God of healing and prophecy has been suggested as a pattern for the Jesus figure. Or, maybe Dionysus, the only Greek God to have a human mother.

    Whether either or neither of those two possibilities is right is likely beyond proof. All we know for sure, is that likely in the second century BCE, an unknown (probable) Jew wrote a story about a divine figure, the Ancient of Days (the English word 'divine' can be used, as the figure is evidently a God who arrives in typical Jewish fashion0, coming to sit on his throne and issuing a royal/divine command that another god-like figure, called the 'son of man,' also coming in the clouds of heaven and being given royal privileges over everyone on the earth,

    It is being argued that one 'God' is higher, than the other 'God,' and therefore it is not polytheism. That must be a failed argument. Why? Because in most polytheistic pantheons there is a 'senior' god, and one or more Junior 'gods.' The Graeco-Roman Pantheon has already been mentioned, as well as the Canaanite example, and for good measure we could add the Hindu example, where Vishnu is often cited as the chief God, though he may have a bit of competition.





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