This question has been bugging me for a while now . . . since the last thread on the Biblical Flood.
It's like this . . .
Immediately prior to the flood, Jehovah had deemed the Earth full of badness, totally wicked and "ruined" . . . GEN 6; 5, 11, 12, 13.
Jehovah found Noah to be righteous and blameless . . . a man who walked with God . . . GEN 6; 9, 7;1.
The heavenly rebellion had taken place and the rebels identified by coming to Earth GEN 6;2
After the flood, Noah and his family inherited a cleansed Earth GEN 7; 21-23.
Was this not the perfect time for the restoration of "God's loving purpose". The issue of man's faithfulness had been settled. The issue of God's sovereignty had been settled. All rebels could have been destroyed at this point. This was in effect an "Armageddon"
Some might say the Messiah along with his sin-atoning sacrifice hadn't emerged yet . . . well, why not? PRIOR to the flood would have been the perfect time to institute such an arrangement.
Some might say "sin" needed to be made manifest . . . but it already was. Lest how could Noah have remained apart from it and be declared righteous?
It makes no sense to me that billions yet unborn needed to have the opportunity to choose . . . they didn't exist! And only for 99.9% to miss the mark anyway. Also on that principle . . . what of all the potential offspring of those billions set to die in the modern day Armageddon?
Why didn't the flood settle things? It makes no sense to have a "dress rehearsal" with all the elements present . . . only to go through the whole process again to the detriment of billions more people.
Anyone alse wondered about this? . . . What say you?