Since this is my 586th post, in "honor" of 586 BC, I'm bumping this to the top.
Good deal. Don't forget to make your 1914 post special. I did mine.
WHEN WAS ANCIENT JERUSALEM DESTROYED? Why does it matter? The Watchtower October 1, 2011 and November 1, 2011
by wannabefree 47 Replies latest watchtower bible
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wannabefree
The original Watchtower magazines, since they are no longer available at jw.org
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Phizzy
Thanks for this Wanna, needs bumping to the top regularly, new readers on this site cam benefit tremendously from this thread, well done.
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wannabefree
BTT
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jonathan dough
Follow these links for the truth about 607.
A. Introduction
B. Historical Overview
C. Overview of the Controversy
D. Servitude
E. The seventy-year prophecy at Jeremiah 25:11 did not apply to Jerusalem and Judah alone but to all nations which fell under the domination of the Babylonian Empire. These nations as a unit, comprising the Babylonian Empire collectively, served the king(s) of Babylon seventy years.
F. The servitude referred to at Jeremiah 25:11 whereby the nations which fell under the domination of the Babylonian Empire would serve the king of Babylon seventy years included a) vassalage, b) willing exile, and/or c) forced captivity and exile.
G. The nations' seventy years of servitude ended in 539 B.C.E. when Babylon fell to the Persians and Medes while the exiles were still in Babylon, thus bringing to a conclusion the servitude prophecy at Jeremiah 25:11, before the Jews returned home.
H. The seventy years could not have ended when the exiles returned to Judah in 537 B.C.E. because there existed no king of Babylon to serve for two years between 537 B.C.E. and 539 B.C.E., after Persia began its reign in 539 B.C.E..
I. The phrase "and all this land must become a devasted place, an object of astonishment" at Jeremiah 25:11 does not mean a) the land Judah, and Jerusalem, would exist without a single inhabitant, b) for a period of exactly 70 years, c) beginning with Jerusalem's destruction.
J. The devastated condition of Judah does not mean it existed in that state without a single inhabitant.
K. The devastation of Judah and Jerusalem at Jeremiah 25:11 referred to its devastated condition after Jerusalem's destruction and during the many years before that city fell.
L. The Bible shows that Judah was "a devastated place, an object of astonishment" during the years leading up to Jerusalem's destruction.
M. The fulfillment of the "devastations of Jerusalem [namely,] seventy years" at Daniel 9:2 refers to the end of Babylon's seventy years of world domination and the technical end of Jerusalem's devasted condition. It does not mean that Jerusalem - and by extension Judah - was devastated (without inhabitant) exactly seventy years.
N. Further Reading and Acknowledgements -
Londo111
Good stuff!
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hamsterbait
The WTBTS said that Jerusalem fell in 606 for the first (almost ) 100 years .
Then they realised that it meant the outbreak of WW1 had NOTHING to do with their interpretation of Daniel.
So they just hitched it back to 607.
They did the same with the 1873 or was it 1874 invisible return of Christ. Christ returned invisibly in 1914 and after inspection, appointed the "Slave"
In the 20's they changed that to 1914.
None of the cretinous followers objected to any of this (as now) The thinking ones escape.
Now the "Proclaimers " book says that the Bible Students "realised that Jesus did NOT return to the vicinity of the Earth (even invisibly) in 1914.
If the Master did not arrive then, how can they claim to be appointed by the Master upon arriving? IT AINT HAPPENED!
HB
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Londo111
These were good discussions of the October 1, 2011 article.
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Londo111
bttt
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wannabefree
homogenization at work