Caleb's Airplane....
FaceThe Facts... Before asking anyone to face any more facts, you really need to get your hands on early WT literature and determine whether or not the Watchtower has been grossly misrepresenting these "facts"
Those subjects are immaterial to the discussion at hand. I have a copy of every publication from that time period until now. Trust me, I am more than aware. Do you have anything to contribute to the discussion?
Hoffnung....
- 2 Chronicles 36:21 and Daniel 9:2 specifically refer to the 70 years of Jer 25, hence Jer 25 is required for a correct understanding of both verses, not the other way around. Jer 25 specifically states that the 70 years are for Babylon, not for Judah or Jerusalem. C.O.Jonsson is correct.
Well, yes, they are all interdependent, intertextual references to the seventy years. The point was: the Watchtower's exegesis of what the "servitude" and the "seventy years" meant is not simply a reading of Jeremiah 25:10-12 but it is the end result of interpreting several intertextual seventy year references. I pointed out that it was a strawman because Jonnson repeatedly stated: "nowhere is the desolation linked with the seventy years of servitude" (i.e. that it cannot be deciphered from the text alone) but that is ridiculous as the interpretation of Jeremiah 25 is based upon SEVERAL TEXTS.
- LXX or the septuagint, is a translation made for a population of dispersed Jews in the hellenic empire who could not read there own language any more. It contains quite a few inaccuracies, more than on this point alone.
Moot point. ALL manuscripts contain errors and quite a few at that. Secondly, are you postulating that the LXX's rendering of this is inaccurate? If so, why? Because it does not agree with Jonnson's interpretation of what the servitude means? Can you provide any proof that the rendering of Jeremiah 25:11 in the LXX is accurate? Yes or no?
I do not know what makes you believe that it "is far older and traditionally regarded as more accurate than the Masoretic text", but it is quite easy to prove it is an incorrect presentation of the facts.
Jonnson even disagrees with you here. Notice his quotation (footnote 8 on p. 203)
The quotation is from The New World Translation (NW), which is based on the Hebrew Masoretic text (MT). The Greek Septuagint version (LXX) says: “and they will serve among the nations,” instead of: “and these nations wil1 have to serve the king of Babylon.” In Jeremiah 25:1–12 of the LXX, for some unknown reason, all references to Babylon and king Nebuchadnezzar are omitted. There are many differences between Jer-MT and Jer-LXX. Jer-LXX is about one-seventh shorter than Jer-MT, which contains 3,097 more words than Jer-LXX. A number of modem scholars hold that Jer-LXX was translated from a Hebrew text that was earlier than the text tradition represented by Jer-MT, arguing that Jer-MT represents a later revision and expansion of the original text, either by Jeremiah himself, his scribe Baruch, or some later editor(s). Thus, with respect to Jeremiah’s prediction that the Babylonian king Nebuchadnezzar would attack and destroy the kingdom of Judah, these scholars often find it difficult to believe that Jeremiah was able to give such concrete and specific forecasts. They find it easier to accept the more general and vague wordings of the Jer-LXX as representing the original prediction, with all references to Babylon and king Nebuchadnezzar being left out.
As Jonnson noted, a number of scholars believe that the text translated in the LXX is a): older than the text of the MT b): closer to the original text c): that the MT is later a revision and expansion of the original text
Whether or not you agree with their conclusion is immaterial...but what I stated is certainly held as "factual" by many scholars and higher "critics" and was in no way "an incorrect presentation of the facts" as you stated.
Any conclusion based upon the inaccurate rendering of the LXX without comparison with other renderings, removes your credibility and demonstrates you do not want to expose facts, but you are looking for elements that fit an interpretation you already hold, discarding everything that contradict it.
The bolded statements are pure speculation or simply false. You have not proved that the rendering of the LXX is inaccurate. You have no basis for asserting so, other than your attempt to uphold Jonnson's flawed interpretation. Secondly, "without comparisons with other renderings"? I have already done so...but will do so again:
"And the whole country shall be a desolation. And they shall be slavesamong the nations seventy years." - Charles Thomson's English Translation of the Greek Septuagint Bible
"And the whole land shall be an annihilation, and they shall be slavesamong the nations seventy years." - New English Translation of the Septuagint
" And all the land shall be a desolation; and they shall serve among the Gentiles seventy years." - Translation of the Septuagint by Sir Lancelot C.L. Brenton
It is universally rendered as "among the Gentiles" and even in some cases "serve" is rendered as "slaves" which further argues my case. It is easy to see whose presentation is "an inaccurate representation of the facts" and who "is looking for elements that fit an interpretation you already hold."
If the point you try to prove in your 2nd part, holds any ground, than all the English translations of this verse would be incorrect. A lot of well educated people looked into the many renderings of this verse, before they wrote the translations as they did. Again you are not exposing any fact, but looking for elements that fit an interpretation you already hold.
Please show me how anything I expounded on is inaccurate. You have asserted several inaccuracies about my stance but have yet to provide an iota of proof about anything. The fact is these verbs are rendered in the past perfect mood, and your statement is just plain silly and shows you lack any type of understanding about how hebrew verbs are conjugated. Are you really going to argue that the verbs are NOT rendered in the past tense? Seriously?
LOL!!! A quick Google search could've at least made you sound more credible about Hebrew morphology and thus able to discredit my exegesis. Prophetic statements are commonly stated in the PAST (as I stated in my OP) because it implies that the events are so certain to happen, that it is as if they already happened. Simply dismissing out of hand all my points shows you willfully disregard anything that contradicts your position and that you are the one who is "not exposing any facts." Everything I stated has been backed up by factual references and statements but I cannot say the same for you or the other Jonnson fans.