I know that when you take a marriage vow, faithfulness is expected and either party going outside that bond is wrong. However as I read the Bible I seem to notice that in the Old Testament a woman having relations with anyone not her husband was adultery, however the only way a male can commit adultery is to have relations with another MARRIED woman, thereby infringing on another mans wife. If a married man was to have relations with an unmarried woman or prostitute, this isnt considered adultery. Also a man could divorce his wife but never the other way around for any reason.
Has anyone else noticed this double standard?
Also, contrary to JWs and mainstream Christianity, polygamy in the NT is not condemed! Being husband of one wife was listed as a requirement for an appointed man in the congregation. Therefore it seems to me that if this was a requirement for membership in the congregation, it would NOT be listed as a special requirement for being appointed in a special position.
Also Jesus speaks of a man not divoricing his wife, except on the grounds of her adultery, again no provisions for her to divorce him for the same.
I welcome your thoughts, and any insight you folks have into this.