My 1990 Strong's Concordance published by Thomas Nelson doesn't editorialize as much as your edition does on the definition of ekklesia. It does what is proper however by supplying the rerivation of the word parts so that I can think about it.
I want to know what the word meant as it came to the ear of each person hearing it when Jesus spoke it--Not what James Strong, a Methodist churchgoer supposed 2000 years later. I agree with your comment--the word congregation doesn't fit any more than the words synagogue or assembly.
1577.ekklesia; from a comp. of 1537 and a der.of 2564; a calling out
The parts of the word ekklesia remind me of the admonition to come out of false religion, especially because 2564, kaleo, to call, is akin (says Strong) to the base of 2753:to incite by word.
So the scriptures you mention I looked up to be sure I have your sense of them.
It seemed after thinking about it, that a quibble on the meaning of church or ekklesia isn't a waste of time but can't get us off high center.
Since the idea of church authority and the extent of that authority among the ones Jesus "calls out" is where you and I differ.
The scriptures you present can only be understood if we look at Matt.23:8,10. Actually the original word Jesus used. If I understand how a Christian should view official doctrine, universal authority only then would I come to grips with having Church Fathers (oops! Jesus warned us of them in this scripture) tell me what I can or can't believe instead of having Jesus guide me.
I had to find the Old King James translation to reference the original language word--It is a Greek word that, as far as I know is never used anywhere else but this passage of the bible: kathegetes (KJV "master") is the word sometimes translated as "rabbi" or "teacher".
So that where I am. Can we obey Jesus, being a part of his ekklesia by having an orthodoxy determined by a group of men.
Thanks for talking.
Maeve