The WTS uses John 3:13 to prove that before Jesus no one was taken to heaven.
In the NWT, John 3:13 reads: "Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but he that descended from heaven, the Son of man."
Notice a difference to the King James Bible:
John 3:13 - "And no man has ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man who is in heaven." (King James Bible)
Notice the difference in the last bit?
In the Westcott/Hort Greek Text, the last bit is omitted; However, in all other greek texts, including Tieschendorf's, it is present.
The text presents a few difficulties:
a) It appears to indicate that Jesus has ascended to heaven sometime in the past, and descended to earth in the then present time;
b) It appears to say that no one was resurrected to heaven before Jesus
c) it appears to say that the Son of man is simultaneously on earth and in heaven.
To me, the translation that has managed to come up with the wording that expresses more correctly the overall sense of the text is this:
John 3:13: "There is no one who has gone up to Heaven, but there is One who has come down from Heaven, namely the Son of Man whose home is in Heaven." (Weymouth New Testament)
Considering the context, Jesus wasn't talking about resurrection to heavenly life; rather, he was telling Nicodemos that he had superior credentials to any other man to talk about heavenly things because, unlike any other human currently living, he has lived in the heavens, and he has descented from his natural abode of existence down to earth, to teach people about heavens. When he said "There is no one who has gone up to heaven", given the context and the follow up of the sentence, it is understood that "There is no one who has gone up to heaven [and returned], but there is one who came down from Heaven, the Son of Man, whose home [existence] is in Heaven"
Therefore, I would translate it this way:
"No man in existence has gone up to heaven, except the Son of man who has come down, whose home is heaven"
What do you think?
Eden