Abe:
Your quoting this verse above however, suggests that you think period "C" has already started as well:
(John 12:31, 32) . . . Now there is a judging of this world; now the ruler of this world will be cast out. 32 And yet I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw men of all sorts to me.
If you don't think the judging has already started then you need to consider how you are interpreting the word "now" in the scripture.
In connection with "now" in John 12:31 -
I was taking "now" (nun, Strong's #3568) as it is normally understood. AMG's Greek WordStudy Dictionary understands it in this verse (as also with Acts 13:11; Phil 1:20; John 16:5, 32; Acts 26:17) as meaning, "In reference to future time just at hand. . . As implying what is immediately to take place." (p. 1019) Similarly, BDAG (Bauer's 3rd Edition Lexicon) defines it as "a temporal marker with focus on the moment as such, now." [Bolding & italics theirs - Bobcat] And with regard to John 12:31 (and the other pasages referenced in AMG) as "of time shortly before or shortly after the immediate pres[ent]."
I guess on the surface, that understanding of "now" in John 12:31 might suggest that I thought the 'judging of the inhabited earth' from Acts 17:31 was then to take place also. But that is not how I understand it. I take 'the judging of the world and its ruler' of John 12:31, which in the context is closely related to Jesus' death (John 12:32), as a judgment that opens the way for salvation. The power of "the world" and "Satan" to hold people in sin is broken via Jesus' sacrificial death. Whereas, Jesus' 'judging of the inhabited earth in righteousness' in Acts 17:31 is a judging of individual humans (which in the context of Acts 17:30, 31 Paul links with the need for individual repentence).
On the other hand, in connection with Revelation 12:12 - This is an interesting thought (that the "because" in the verse might place the ouster of Satan before Jesus' attains to his "authority.") This possibility would work regardless of whether this took place in the 1st century (as I contend) or near 1914 (as you contend). But I don't know if the Revelation account (in chapter 12) intends that idea.
Verse 6 describes the 'woman's child' as being 'caught away to God's throne.' If that indicates when Jesus actually received his "authority," it would rule out the idea as the sequence, as portrayed in Revelation 12, places that before the 'war in heaven.' On the other hand, if gaining "authority" were to be quickly followed by the "war" which ousts Satan, then, it might be splitting hairs wondering which came first. They could possibly be seen as a close sequence that effectively allows them to be described together; the one following immediately after the other, allowing the ones saying "now" in verse 10 to be describing the whole sequence. The account itself doesn't seem to focus on that detail (IMO), but the "because" in verse 10 would, if taken literally, allow for the sequence you expressed about it.
Take Care, Abe