Colossian 1:16 - "all OTHER things"

by aqwsed12345 136 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    Self-subordination doesn't imply inferiorness in substance, that's why it's also necessary to distinguish if we are talking about the ontological, or about economical relationship of the Father and the Son.

    You are misquoting authors the basically the same way the WTS did.

    You quoted a couple of people who gave their own opinion, and as we can see, it was enough for me to find the Greek original of the references: no early Christian writer said "the Son is just an angel" or "the Son was made, he is a creature ", etc. The Holy Scriptures do not state this either, and as you can see, neither did the early Christian writers. How can you say that Christians before the Nicene Creed would have held a WTS Christology?

    The Trinity is simply the summation and definition of the Scriptural statements that there is one God, but at the same time, as we can see, there is a plurality in it, since it declares about several persons being true God.

    For the other position, the Arian definition, it is no coincidence that the falsification and deliberate mistranslation of the Holy Scriptures was necessary.

    The Word is of course not God in the sense that he is the same person as God the Father, but he has the same quality (hence of the substance, has the fullness of deity), that's the Nicene definition. He is begotten from the Father before the aeons (which are also made through Him), and He is the eikon and kharakter of the Father's hypostasis. In Jesus, the fullness (pleroma) of "divinity" (theotes, not theiotes) resides bodily, not the fullness of the "divine quality", as the JWs falsely translated it.

    The Philippians 2:6 is clearly mistranslated by the Arian Ulfias, and by the NWT. Existing in the morphē of God (has the Bible ever said that about any angel before?), and did not regard as "harpagmos" to BE (einai) equal (isa) with God. What does it mean not regarding/considering something as "harpagmos"? This expression can only be described as something that you cling to at all costs, by force, approx. as Gollum clings to the One Ring "my precious"). So he didn't cling, insist on his equality with God (which he already had), by continuing to stay in the morphē of God, BUT etc.

    Ulfias rendered the part "equality with God" to be only "similar" with God. NWT is much worse, it completely distorts the meaing here.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    raymond frantz

    "If Jesus wa[s] the Almighty there would be an "ὁ" before the word "θεὸς" [in John 1:1c] but there isn't which means that Jesus is just a small god."

    Based on what? If John 1:1c said "ho theos en lo logos", that would mean the Logos is the same who was with (thus the Father) mentioned in John 1:1b (so sabellian modalism). That is not a proven stance, but just an invented theological bias that only "ho theos" is true and almight God, "theos" without an article must mean lesser "god", or demigod. There is no such rule, neither gramatically, nor logically. By the way the Son is also called "ho theos" in the NT, and the Father is also called simply "theos" without an article in the NT many times. According to the Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible translation, John 1:1c "and the Word was {what} God {was}", the footnote for this verse explains the difficulty:

    This second theos could also be translated 'divine' as the construction indicates "a qualitative sense for theos". The Word is not God in the sense that he is the same person as the theos mentioned in 1:1a; he is not God the Father (God absolutely as in common NT usage) or the Trinity. The point being made is that the Logos is of the same uncreated nature or essence as God the Father, with whom he eternally exists. This verse is echoed in the Nicene Creed: "God (qualitative or derivative) from God (personal, the Father), Light from Light, True God from True God… homoousion with the Father."

    By the way, how do you reconcile with Isaiah 44:24 that a "small god" was involved in creation (which the NT states several times about the Son). Additionally Neh 9:6, Isa 44:24, 45:12, 48:13, Psalm 95:5-6.

  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat
    Self-subordination doesn't imply inferiorness in substance, that's why it's also necessary to distinguish if we are talking about the ontological, or about economical relationship of the Father and the Son.
    You are misquoting authors the basically the same way the WTS did.

    The highlighted words are from Greek philosophy.

    By contrast, in biblical language Jesus is, “the firstborn of all creation” (Col 1.15), “the beginning of the creation of God” (Rev 3.14), “I live because of the Father” (John 6.57), “the Lord created me” (Prov 8.22 in the Jewish Publication Society translation, Robert Alter’s translation, the NRSV, and the LXX as quoted and accepted by all the early Christian fathers, including Athanasius). You have not given any good reason why these scriptures don’t simply mean what they say, or any reason why Origen did not mean what he said when he called Jesus the “most ancient of all the works of creation”.

    John Ziesler said that Jesus is distinct from God and subordinate to him. In order to be perfectly clear he even says that calling Jesus “Son of God” did not mean he was “God the Son, Second Person of the Trinity”. How much clearer could he have been? How can you say that I am not quoting him fairly?

    It is true that Jehovah’s Witnesses have described Jesus as an angel, but a fair representation of their teaching would acknowledge that they far more often they emphasise that Jesus is unique and superior to the angels because he is the “only begotten Son”. They teach that Jesus is unique because he is the only direct creation of God and he was the one through whom God created everything else. On top of that God gave Jesus a name that is far superior to the angels and all the angels bow down to him. He is the archangel, or the ruler of the angels. They come to a conclusion similar to the New Testament scholar Susan R. Garrett in her book No Ordinary Angel (2008):

    in comparing Jesus to the angels, one cannot simply put him against them, for he is like them in some important ways—as early Christian authors perceived so clearly. Comparison of Jesus with the angels can never be a simple matter of showing his superiority to them. So, in my analysis, I will also explore what he and they have in common. Page 12
    To say that Christ is the firstborn and the agent of creation is to identify him with the personified figure of Wisdom, and thereby to insist that he predates the angels. In Jewish antiquity, Wisdom was widely assumed to be God’s first creation, and the agent used by God to fashion the rest of the cosmos. Philo calls Wisdom ‘the firstborn mother of all things’. In common understanding, angels did not come along until the second (or possibly even the fifth or sixth day) of creation. By calling Christ the firstborn and by insisting on his role in creation, the New Testament authors undermined any alleged claim by jealous angels, including Satan, that Christ was younger than they and therefore undeserving of worship. Page 127
  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    "The highlighted words are from Greek philosophy."

    It's not an argument, it's just a bluff that you can't give a meaningful answer.

    There are many terms known and used in Greek philosophy used in the NT terminology, such as: pleroma, logos, arkhe, hypostasis, physis, etc. So the apostles were not at all averse to the use of terms and concepts that had their own precedents and parallels in Greek philosophy as well, so it's completely justified.

    We know that Paul willingly boarded a ship dedicated to Castor and Pollux, or that a Christian person in the Bible bore the names Fortunatus or Mercurius. But there is even more elaborate: Paul takes his analogy from the Mithraic cult when talking about shedding the old man and putting on the new man. Paul approvingly quotes a verse ("in Him we live and move and exist") that originally addressed Zeus. He even calls a Cretan poet, Epimenides, a prophet.

    We know that these names and motifs come from paganism, and if you were right, Christians should have thrown them away like hot iron. Apostles used the pagans' education in this sense, at least, and sometimes lived with their customs and phrases. Thus, they did not hesitate to call Jesus "Savior", although Roman emperors and earlier pagan rulers used it as a decorative title. Similarly, the Kyrios, which was applied to Jesus in the first, most concise Christian creeds, was the emperor's title of honor. But Paul spoke of the victor's wreath, which was part of the pagan religious elements woven into the Olympic Games, or the winner's palm, which also symbolized eternity with pagan overtones.

    "By contrast, in biblical language Jesus is, “the firstborn of all creation” (Col 1.15), “the beginning of the creation of God” (Rev 3.14)"

    Neither text proves what you reads into it. This interpretation is, to put it mildly, improbable, and the other statements of Scripture that the Son was "begotten" and already "was" in the beginning, even though excludes this interpretation, not to mention the countless statements that cannot be applied to creatures. The term firstborn in biblical context doesn't mean "first in order", but pre-eminent heir. In the contemporary context, prōtotokos here is a title, a dignified name, roughly meaning "distinguished, pre-eminent heir". Just as WTS literure can understand it well in other context:

    „David, who was the youngest son of Jesses, was called by Jehovah the "first-born," due to Jehovah’s elevation of David to the preeminent position in God's chosen nation.”
    (Aid to Bible Understanding, 1971, 584)

    So if the title "firstborn" actually means "preeminent position", why would "preeminent of all creation" mean the "first creature"?

    The fact that "the arche of God's creation" in the given Hellenic cultural-linguistic environment did not mean at all that he was the "first created being", but rather the primordial, elementary principle, active cause, orign, etc. of creation. This was the meaning of the word "arkhe" in the original language, which the English word "beginning" cannot accurately reflect. You can check how many times and senses does the NT uses this word int the Concordance.

    “I live because of the Father” (John 6.57)"

    That also doesn't refute the Nicene theology, which also holds this: the Son is generated from the Father, but not made, not by creation, but - as the Scripture says - begotten, born, and "before" the creation of the aions.

    "“the Lord created me” (Prov 8.22 in the Jewish Publication Society translation, Robert Alter’s translation, the NRSV, and the LXX as quoted and accepted by all the early Christian fathers, including Athanasius)."

    Whoever translates it so, whoever "accepts" this, it's still a mistranslation. It's qanah in the Hebrew text, not bara. And only the original language text is inspired, a translation is not. Athanasius did not "accept" this, just didn't addressed the issue, since he wasn't a Hebraist, nor a Bible translator. And still could refute Arianism.

    "You have not given any good reason why these scriptures don’t simply mean what they say"

    I have: these text doesn't mean what they "mean" in your mind. I've proven that firstborn doesn't mean first created, from WTS publications I could prove this is a title means "pre-eminent", and arkhe also doesn't mean "first in order or time", and "beginner", but the originating, promordial principle. He doesn't have beginning, he is THE beginning, the arkhe himself.

    "any reason why Origen did not mean what he said when he called Jesus the “most ancient of all the works of creation”."

    I have: you can look up yourself that Origen was clearly Trinitarian, although sometimes with imprecise wording, but professed that the Son is truly God, and begotten of the same substance of the Father. So you are doing a fallcy quoting out of context. Your translation is also misleading, since he doesn't said He was the first created being, but practically that he is older than demiurges. Origen's words do not at all testify to an Arian consensus in Christology before the 4th century. You also received links where this is presented in detail, but then again for your pleasure:


    "John Ziesler said that Jesus is distinct from God and subordinate to him."

    Who cares what John Ziesler said or thought? What authority does he have? Nicene theology also accepts that Jesus is distinct from God the Father, and again: Self-subordination doesn't imply inferiorness in substance, that's why it's also necessary to distinguish if we are talking about the ontological, or about economical relationship of the Father and the Son. And after Incarnation the Son is also fully human, and as human of course inferior to God.

    "How much clearer could he have been? How can you say that I am not quoting him fairly?"

    Because you're doing a WTS-style 'quote collection", "quote mining", without any actual research, and you're throwing quotes at me as authorities. I asked you many times to stop it, since it completely against the scientific methodology and annoying as well.

    Raymond Franz describes well that the job of many in Bethel is to visit libraries and look for half-sentences that can be taken out of lexicons. I don't care how many quotes you put in front of me to see, "even" Dr. John Smith and Dr. Franz Williams said. This is a misleading WTS propaganda tactic to frame their interpretation as "scientific consensus". There is a good chance that they did not think in the first place what the WTS wants to put into their mouths, that the early Christians professed a WTS Christology. If you asked them that question, you would get some interesting answers. They write cautious opinions, conclusions, and hypotheses without concrete evidence. The point is

    Nowhere does the Bible call the Son a created being (ktistheis), a creature (ktisma) or the first creature (protoktisma or protoktisis). You more specifically, your secondary sources could not name a single early Christian source that specifically and explicitly states that the Son is "the first created being" and that "the Son is the Archangel".

    We can see the opposite countless times in early Christian literature, from which it follows that they professed essentially the same content of faith as what was recorded in the Nicene Creed, so there was no alleged "great apostasy", which Jesus' words in Matthew 16:18 exclude anyway. There was no doctrinal break in the true church, false teaching did not take over. See also Mt 23:2-3, Mt 28:20, Rom 3:3-4, 1 Tim 3:15, 2 Tim 2:13.

    "It is true that Jehovah’s Witnesses have described Jesus as an angel, but a fair representation of their teaching would acknowledge that they far more often they emphasise that Jesus is unique and superior to the angels because he is the “only begotten Son”."

    Yep, but Hebrews 1 clearly proves that the Son is superior to "all the angels", so he cannot be one of them in any sense at all. An archangel is still just an angel, as the archbishop is also a bishop. Maybe the NWT forgot to add the word "other" here. If he cannot be an angel, since he is superior to "all of them", then what is Him? The Scriptures answers clearly: He is Lord, and truly God, not in a sense He is the same (in person) as the God the Father, but in the sense He is the eikon and kharakter of the Father's hypostasis. has the fullness (pleroma) of divinity (theotes, and not theiotes). That's the very same thing, what the Nicene creed contains, when it's says He is homoousios with the Father.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    I ask you again:

    How could "a lesser god" (demigod), or an archangel participate in the creation, if Bible clearly states that no one other than YHWH God completed the creation "alone" - Isaiah 44:24; Malachi 2:10; Job 9:2, 8.

    It is even conceptually impossible, since only God can create. Creation is an exclusively divine ability, and no created being can even serve as a means for creation. God is the unique source of creation, as He does not cooperate with any tools, partners, or materials in the work of creation. God's creative activity is exclusive. No one and nothing can create as God does. The creative capacity of God is an incommunicable attribute for any creature. To be able to create, that is, to bring existence from nonexistence, one must be God.

  • vienne
    vienne

    "It is even conceptually impossible, since only God can create. Creation is an exclusively divine ability, and no created being can even serve as a means for creation. God is the unique source of creation, as He does not cooperate with any tools, partners, or materials in the work of creation. God's creative activity is exclusive. No one and nothing can create as God does. The creative capacity of God is an incommunicable attribute for any creature. To be able to create, that is, to bring existence from nonexistence, one must be God."

    None of these claims are supported by scripture. The prepositional phrase ἐν αὐτῷ does not read "by him" but "in him." That implies agency not actor. Christ is, according to Paul, the agent of God's creation. He is not the originator of it nor the designer of it.

    Additionally, Paul uses the metaphor of a son's relationship to his father. He is the image of God. The word translated image derives from the impress of a master die on a coin. Christ is not the original, but the 'spitting image' of God. He is begotten - called elsewhere the 'only begotten' son. The very word implies an origin. And we have an origin attached to him in Malachi and in 1 John. John describes Jesus as ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς, that is "from the beginning," and Malachi describes Jesus as having an origin. Five / two reads according to the AV " But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." The Hebrew from which "goings forth" is derived implies an origin.

    No matter what slant one puts on "firstborn" - whether we take it to me 'principal one" or literally 'first of all' it is still "of creation." Jesus is classed with creation. He is the agent of the creator.

    In Colossians Paul is refuting a Gnostic sect prevalent in Colossae that taught that there were many intermediaries between God and man. Paul says there is only one, Jesus who is God's first work, his firstborn, who is "of creation."

    You misstate Watchtower belief. You craft straw man arguments. You seek to diminish Slim's arguments by insulting his sources rather than refuting the actual point. An example is your comment on John Locke whose "Reasonableness of Christianity" is a classic. The issue here is what the Scriptures actually say, not what the vain philosophies of speculative writers have said. And restating how you wish it to be is not proof of your claims. Much of your 'argument' is based on one of the major logic flaws: that of repetition of claims without further proof.

    I've had my say, I suppose. Now I leave this to you two to hash out.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    "None of these claims are supported by scripture."

    Of course they are. In the Bible, there is only one Creator, God himself (Genesis 2:4-7, Acts 14:15), and God created everything himself with "his own hands" (Neh 9:6, Isa 44:24, 45:12, 48:13, Job 9:2.8, Psalm 95:5-6), thus alone. Creation is the work of God alone and directly. The Bible clearly states that only God can and does create, and does not use secondary agents, co-creator angels, etc. for this. These statements are explicit and clear, and by the way, common sense also supports this. So there is no room left for the archangel Jesus vindicated by WTS.

    Additionally, the Scriptures do not merely ascribe to the Son some kind of cooperation in the creation, but also teach that he is creator of all creatures (which according to them he does not belong to), and creation is only a divine ability. Angels can perform miracles to a certain degree, but they cannot create, that is the exclusive ability of God.

    Since the Scriptures clearly state that YHWH God "alone" created the world, at the same time the New Testament states in many places that the Son is also the creator, two possibilities remain:

    1. Scripture contradicts itself
    2. YHWH God is not merely the Father, but also the Son.

    "The prepositional phrase ἐν αὐτῷ does not read "by him" but "in him.""

    Who said it's not? In Colossians 1:16 there is "en autō" indeed, but what does it prove? The Son's role in the creation is described in many ways, in John 1:3 we read "di autou", which means "through him". Also: 1 Corinthians 8:6, and more explicitly Hebrews 1:10.

    "Additionally, Paul uses the metaphor of a son's relationship to his father. He is the image of God. The word translated image derives from the impress of a master die on a coin."

    Yep, Colossians 1:15 describes the Son as the image (eikon) of God the Father. Also Hebrews 1:2 "the exact expression (kharakter) of His substance (hypostasis)". These words express a meaning like exact impression, exact representation, "mirror-like representation", etc. Also according to Philippians 2:9, in Jesus, the fullness (pleroma) of "divinity/deity" (theotes, not theiotes) resides bodily, not just the "divine quality", as the JWs falsely translated it. Thus the Logos is of the same uncreated nature or essence as God the Father, with whom he eternally exists. This verse is echoed in the Nicene Creed: "God (qualitative or derivative) from God (personal, the Father), Light from Light, True God from True God… homoousion with the Father."

    "Christ is not the original, but the 'spitting image' of God. He is begotten - called elsewhere the 'only begotten' son. The very word implies an origin."

    You are knocking on open doors, the Nicene teaching on the Son never stated that the Son is not from the Father. On the contrary: the Son is generated from the Father, but not made, not by creation, but - as the Scripture says - begotten, born, and "before" the creation of the aions. The Son received his being and deity from the Father, who communicated his entire essence to him. Or according to the Athanasian creed:

    "The Father is made of none; neither created, nor begotten. The Son is of the Father alone; not made, nor created; but begotten. The Holy Spirit is of the Father and of the Son; neither made, nor created, nor begotten; but proceeding."

    "And we have an origin attached to him in Malachi and in 1 John. John describes Jesus as ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς, that is "from the beginning"

    It's self goal: The expression, "from the beginning", here is equivalent with in the beginning (John 1:1) and therefore to mean from the beginning of time, or rather, from eternity.

    "and Malachi describes Jesus as having an origin. Five / two reads according to the AV " But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting." The Hebrew from which "goings forth" is derived implies an origin."

    Ad 1: It's not Malachi, but Micah 5:2.

    Ad 2: Just to repeat, the Nicene Christology never denied the Son is unbegotten, without having the orign from the Father. The point is: this generation of him from the Father is NEVER called creation, but "begotten", "born." The Scripture makes a clear distinction between the two.

    Ad 3: It's self goal: It's says the Son's origns are from ancient times, from the eternety/everlasting [ūmōwṣā’ōṯāw miqqeḏem mîmê ‘ōwlām].

    "No matter what slant one puts on "firstborn" - whether we take it to me 'principal one" or literally 'first of all' it is still "of creation." Jesus is classed with creation. He is the agent of the creator. [..] Paul says there is only one, Jesus who is God's first work, his firstborn, who is "of creation."

    Paul never said Jesus is God's "first work".

    "Firstborn" is the title of the Son, used in the many times, and doesn't mean "first something in order", but implies a pre-eminent position, main heir, ruler, etc. Prōtotokos does not mean "first created" but "firstborn". The first half of the word "first" here does not mean first in order, but roughly like in the English word "Prime Minister", "prime" does not mean the first ever minister. And the second half of the word says the same thing as the Nicene Christology: born. In the contemporary context, prōtotokos here is a title, a dignified name, roughly meaning "distinguished, pre-eminent heir".

    The text does not place the "firstborn" in the group of the creatures by using the genitive. Let's see the next thought, "pasēs ktiseōs" is in the genitive case, which in English we connect with "of". WTS interprets it approximately as "among", thus "firstborn among the creatures'', even though in the case when Paul expressly wanted to include the firstborn in that group, instead of using the genitive case, he specifically put it this way, like in Romans 8:29 where he calls the Son "the firstborn among many brothers" (en pollois adelphois).

    In summary, the correct meaning of "prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs" here is not that he is the first created being, but rather that he is "distinguished, pre-eminent heir (ruler) of the whole creation", thus "over the whole creation." This interpretation corresponds to the linguistic and cultural context of the time and the biblical context also.

    "You misstate Watchtower belief. You craft straw man arguments."

    Say one example.

    "You seek to diminish Slim's arguments by insulting his sources rather than refuting the actual point."

    If you read back, I looked up the specifically indicated sources of each one (Origen, Justin). Instead of looking at my sources and thinking about it, or giving me some kind of appreciable response, slimboyfat just thew another secondary quote at home, mainly from people who are not relevant authorities in theology, let alone in the history of the church or the history of dogma.

    I did not attack the person of his sources, but the method he used.

    This is a typical WTS propanda tactic, well known to any apologist who has researched the cited sources of WTS publications. A very good example, the opinion of the scientists who allegedly "praise" the NWT, who were asked if they really consider the NWT a good example of translating the Bible? And practically all of them pointed out that no, they only praised it in terms of one or some few element, they are fully aware that it is a tendentious mistranslation in terms of the theologically relevant biblical passages.

    Slimboyfat did the same thing, he started throwing all kinds of quotes that, well, even this and this scientist said the same thing. Of course, what was left out of the quote was what this scientist specifically based his opinion on, or if so, I was able to find out in 5 minutes that that did not support that opinion.

    WTS can effectively make people who are not familiar with scientific methodology believe that there is a scientific consensus behind their position, although this is not true, the best example of this is the Howard hypothesis for the alleged removal of the Tetragrammaton from the New Testament, which is just a completely baseless assumption, or better said: a conspiracy theory.

    It is not a big deal to collect quotes from books where someone gives an opinion that the Church has "corrupted" in its theology and practice after the turn of Constantine, however, if we ask the question properly, it turns out that it is unfounded in the given question.

    In it's specific issue, the lesson is clear: Nowhere does the Bible call the Son a created being (ktistheis), a creature (ktisma) or the first creature (protoktisma or protoktisis). There is not even a single early Christian source exists before Arius, that specifically and explicitly states that the Son is "the first created being" and that "the Son is the Archangel".

    So the claim that the Christology of pre-Nicaea Christianity was like that of today's WTS is also a conspiracy theory, along with the alleged "great apostasy" as a whole.

    "An example is your comment on John Locke whose "Reasonableness of Christianity" is a classic."

    I did not say that John Locke is not a significant person in general, but he is not relevant at all in theology, especially church history.

    "The issue here is what the Scriptures actually say..."

    I somewhat agree, with the addition that, in addition to the Scriptures, what the earliest Christian sources report on is also important. Assuming that the Church founded by Jesus is led by the Holy Spirit, and knowing that there was no canonized New Testament Bible in the apostolic age, as we know it today, by definition the creed and theology of the early Christians are also the result of the oral teachings of the apostles.

    "...not what the vain philosophies of speculative writers have said."

    Yes, I'm well aware of this JW technique, when you can't deal with my argument, you quickly throw in this alibi excuse, this stupid thought-terminating cliché that "it's philosophy!" and "this is just human reasoning and speculation!". Which actually means nothing more than the the argument presented is too sophisticated for them to understand, or cannot refute, and if it's too high-level, it obviously can't be true. The sect is truly the apotheosis of poor quality, the cult of ignorance.

    Also, because your WTS denominational doctrine is so deeply rooted in your mind that, like a computer virus, for the sake of its own "health", prevent the "antivirus program" that threatens it, from starting. Thus, the extremely deep level of indoctrination repeated day by day, as well as the stubborn attitude of "I'm just holding on despite all" cons, prevents correct objective comparison and meaningful reflection.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    The Father is without origin (principium sine principio). The Father that he is not begotten ἀγέν(ν)ητος, has no principle from which he would originate (ἄναρχος, ἀναίτιος).

    The Son originates from the Father through generation, through birth/begetting.

    According to Scripture

    a) the Son is the natural only-begotten Son of the Father in the metaphysical sense of the word (φύσει not θέσει, i.e., by adoption). But the natural son comes from the father through generation.

    b) The New Testament formally teaches this when it interprets the Old Testament passages referring to the Son's birth authentically. Thus: "To which angel did he ever say (the Father): You are my son, today I have begotten you?" [Heb 1,5–Ps 2.] "There were no seas yet, and I was already conceived." [Prov 8,24.] Furthermore: "No one has ever seen God; the only-begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, has made him known." [Jn 1,18; cf. 1,1.]

    c) The Father is the archetype and source of all fatherhood: "I bow my knees before the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, from whom all fatherhood has received its name in heaven and on earth." [Eph 3,14.] Similarly, the Son is the archetype and form of all sonship: "Those whom he knew beforehand, he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son so that he might be the firstborn among many brethren." [Rom 8,29 cf. Gal 3,26.] But sonship is characterized by coming through generation. If this were missing in the second divine person, it would be a false or distorted archetype and pattern.

    This is also the universal teaching of the Church Fathers before the Council of Nicaea. According to Justin, the Logos is the God begotten by the Father. The apologies of the teaching cast some shadow on their less fortunate attempts to connect the eternal birth of the Word with the creation of the world. In this respect, the Alexandrians and Tertullian are more precise [Justin. I 61 62; Clem. Al. Adumbr. (Μ 9, 734), Origen. in Jer hom. 9, 4; Tertull. Prax 2 8 9; Marc. II 27.].

    Later, especially the Greek Fathers defended the eternity of the Son's generation against the Arians (the Arians' main argument was that the begotten is later than the begetter) [Nyssen. Eunom. (M 45, 441 ff.); Basil. Eunom. II 17; cf. Thom I 42, 2.]; as well as the necessity of this generation (according to the Arians, God could not be forced to beget, so the Son is from the Father's will, i.e., created), which however, differs from blind compulsion as much as it does from the free decision of creation [Nev. Athanas. Ctra Ar. or. 3, 60 ff. cf. 1, 21–28; Nazianz. Or 29, 1.]; and finally, its substantial and spiritual nature (according to the Arians, generation involves division), which is compatible with God's absolute simplicity [Athanas. Decret. Nicean. 13; Nyssen. Eunom. IV. (M 45, 617 ff.); Cyrill. A. Thesaur. 6.].

    In summary, the Father is considered to be without origin, while the Son originates from the Father through generation, name begetting/birth. This understanding is derived from Scripture and is also the universal teaching of the early Church Fathers before the Council of Nicaea.

    The Greek Fathers, in particular, defended the eternity, necessity, and substantial and spiritual nature of the Son's generation against the Arians, who believed that the Son was a created being and not eternal like the Father.

    Origen [Origen. Princip. praef.] says (in Rufinus' translation): "The summary of the apostolic preaching is the Father; then the Son, 'who became incarnate and became man, although he was God, and remained as man what he was: God. The Holy Spirit is the companion of the Father and the Son in honor and dignity. From here, it is no longer clear (from the apostolic preaching) whether he is begotten or unbegotten (γεννητὸς; Jerome [Hieron. Epist. 94.] says that Rufinus falsified Origen here, who, according to him, actually raised the question: γενητός, that is, whether the Spirit came into being in time). Therefore, we must determine this from Scripture to the best of our ability."

    Since we can read in him more than once such a statement: "In the Holy Trinity, nothing should be called greater or lesser" (Origen. Princip. praef. 3; cf. in Jn 2; In Rom 5, 8, 7, 13.), it is understandable that Pamphilus, Gregory Thaumaturgus, and Eusebius defended Origen's Trinitarian doctrine; and Athanasius is obviously right that Origen's dogmatic teaching is correct.

    It is certain that his zealous disciple, Gregory Thaumaturgus teaches precisely: "One God, the Father of the living Word... one Lord, one from the only one, God from God... one Holy Spirit, whose existence is from God; a complete Trinity, which is not divided or separated in glory, eternity, and dominion." The great weight of this testimony is that even simple believers knew and used Gregory's exposition of faith by heart, as Gregory of Nyssa testifies about his grandmother, Macrina. Cyprian, in particular, teaches the consubstantiality of the three persons clearly and decisively.

    Just a few years after Arius' appearance in 318, the fathers of Nicaea solemnly declared the consubstantiality of the Son with the Father, and Athanasius could throw it in the faces of the Arians: "We have shown that this view has been handed down from generation to generation among the fathers; but you, new Jews and sons of Caiaphas, which fathers can you refer to?" (Athanas. Decret. Nicaen. 26.)

    Indeed, the Arians did not feel the ground of the ancient ecclesiastical teaching under their feet, and therefore resorted to various ambiguous formulations and split into factions. On the other hand, the 4th-century fathers, as one man, took the position of the Nicene Creed, including the Cappadocians.

    The creation of the world is an exclusive divine activity. God is the one principle of everything, the creator of everything. This is denied by the Gnostics and all kinds of other dualists, who place a world-creating demiurge between the absolutely supreme and holy God and the completely evil matter, who then, as a creature, carries out creative activity.

    Proof. In the Old Testament, God declares: "I am the Lord, the maker of all things, who alone stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth by myself" (Is 44:24). John says of the Word: "All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made" (Jn 1:3; cf. Heb 3:4 Ap 4:11. Act 4:11 Rom 11:36).

    The Church Fathers first proclaimed the Christian truth against the Gnostic demiurge (Iren. II 1-3; IV 21, 1). However, their main argument against the Arians was: The Word (whom they call a creature) created the world, therefore it must be God; a creature cannot create (Athanas. Ctra Arian. II 21 24; Nyssen. Eunom. II (M 45, 512c); Cyril. Al. C. Iulian. II.). Augustine vigorously opposed Philo's explanation that at the beginning of Scripture (Gen 1:20-26) God would have called on the angels to be his helpers in creation (August. Gen. ad litt. IX 15, 26 - 28 Civ. Dei XII 24; Trin. III 8, 13; cf. already Iren. I 22, 1; II 2, 4; IV 20, 1).

    No existing or possible created being can possess creative power, not even in a supernatural way. For the creative activity presupposes infinite power. Because a) it creates something against nothing, which is separated from nothing by an infinite distance; bridging this infinite distance demands infinite power. b) Creation is directed towards being itself, the most universal reality, without any limitation from determinations and pre-existing matter; therefore, it is essentially unlimited power: whoever can create something can create anything at will. However, finite creatures cannot accept infinite capacity as a determinant of existence or as an accessory: the extent of the receiving subject sets a limit to the content of being that can be accepted; an infinite ocean cannot be poured into a finite container.

    Moreover, a creature cannot even be made an instrument of creation. Because a) the task of the instrument is to prepare the material for the acceptance of the activity of the principal cause. But creation does not aim at existing matter; therefore, there is no exercise area (materia circa quam) for its operation. Most importantly, b) the instrumental causes must receive motion from the principal cause and transmit it to the matter, which must be shaped according to the intention of the principal cause. However, a finite creature, as such, is incapable of taking up and carrying the creative activity with infinite content, just as a stone or log is incapable of being the substantial carrier of spiritual activity, even in a supernatural way. Of course, there is no obstacle to a creature being the occasional cause (causa occasionalis) of a creation-like miracle; this, however, only means moral cooperation.

  • slimboyfat
    slimboyfat

    You object to me citing what relevant scholars say on the topics you are raising. Take the issue of the translation of the Hebrew word qana in Prov 8.22. You have asserted that this word does not mean “created” in this verse. What is your basis for this claim? You have offered none. I pointed out to you that the standard translation used by Bible scholars, the NRSV, translates qana as “created” in this verse. Not only that, but Jewish scholars, including JPS translation, and the highly regarded translation by Robert Alter both translate this word qana as “created” in this verse. Brown-Driver-Briggs says that qana means “created” in this verse, and lists a number of verses where it means “created”. (Gen 14.19, 22; Deu 32.6; Ps 139.13; and Prov 8.22)

    https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h7069/kjv/wlc/0-1/

    Against all this you simply assert that it should not be translated “created” but offer absolutely no reason and no scholarly backing for your assertion. You seem to think that you just saying it makes it so. The mainstream consensus view can be wrong of course, but you haven’t given any evidence or cited any scholar. You just declare your view fact.

    You said earlier in the thread “who cares what John Ziesler thinks”? Well he was a scholar of the apostle Paul who was chosen by his peers to write a critical text on the theology of Paul for a prestigious series in biblical studies for the Oxford University Press. That’s why his expert view counts when he says that Paul believed Jesus was distinct and subordinate to God and not conceived as part of a Trinity. You don’t offer any counter argument. You simply dismiss scholars in favour of your bald assertions.

    What I am pointing out to you is that mainstream scholarship on Paul and the early Christians supports the view that Paul believed Jesus was distinct and subordinate to God. The reasons John Ziesler in particular gives for this are clear and straightforward and I quoted him at length. This is mainstream scholarship. Many scholars argue that for the early Christians Jesus was viewed as God’s first creation and the most powerful angel in heaven. The idea that Paul or other early Christians thought Jesus was part of a Trinity, centuries before the dogma was even developed, is truly a fringe position.

  • aqwsed12345
    aqwsed12345

    " Take the issue of the translation of the Hebrew word qana in Prov 8.22. You have asserted that this word does not mean “created” in this verse. What is your basis for this claim? You have offered none."

    Truly, I have. Check this out:

    The gentile Christians of the first centuries did not know Hebrew, so they used the LXX translation, which renders the correspondent Hebrew word here qānānî (קנני) as ἔκτισε (“created”). This was an accidental mistranslation by the pre-Christian Jewish translators, as the true meaning of the Hebrew word here is not "created", and this was already recognized by the ancient Jewish translators (Aquila, Theodotion, and Symmachus), and in their version render by ἐκτήσατο (“possessed”). Jerome, whoe has learned Hebrew from the Jews recognised this (the full Hexapla was available for him), so he also rendered it in the Vulgate as possedit (possessed). So it wasn't the Trinitarian Christians who recognised this mistranslation, but the Jews.

    The testimony of Philo, Aquila, Theodotion, Symmachus and Jerome is clear on this issue. And you links also say that this is not the primary meaing of the verb qanah. The fact that some translations still rendered it with "created" is irrelevant, since a translation is just a translation. You cannot suppress this with fallacy of argumentum ad verecundiam, since there is no such things as official, of inspred translation. If wisdom had to be created (was “produced”), are we to conclude that God had no wisdom until a certain time when He created it? It is obvious that God wouldn’t be God if there was a time when He was without wisdom. If God is eternal, then surely His attribute of divine wisdom is eternal. There could never have been a time when God was without wisdom. So “possessed” is a more accurate translation than“produced”, or „created.”

    You should compare how is the verb 'qanah' translated in the Book of Proverbs 1:5, 4:5, 4:7, 15:32, 16:16, 18:15, 19:8.

    When the Hebrew Bible wanted to emphasize creation, it always used the verb 'bara': Genesis 1:1, 1:21, 1:27, 2:3-4, 5:1-2, 6:7; Exodus 34:10; Deuteronomy 4:32; Psalm 51:10, 89:12, 89:47, 102:18, 104:30, 148:5; Isaiah 4:5, 40:26, 40:28, 41:20, 42:5, 43:1, 43:7, 43:15, 45:7-8, 45:12, 45:18, 48:7 , 54:16, 57:19, 65:17-18.

    This misinterpretation ignores the middle of the sentence which states that Wisdom existed from everlasting (olam), that is, eternity. Christ (if indeed Wisdom) is eternal, from the beginning, of eternity, before God’s work, not as the first product of God’s works, just as Paul says at Col 1:17: “He is before all things.” He was not created but rather “set up” or “poured out” (Hebrew Nacak) as one pours out an existing libation, or casts existing metal or anoints an existing king (Strong and Vine’s, 188).

    • “The LORD possessed me at the beginning of His way, Before His works of old. From everlasting [owlam] I was established, From the beginning, from the earliest times of the earth.”
    • “…Even from everlasting [owlam] to everlasting, Thou art God.” (Pslm 90:2)

    Anyway, the Greek-speaking ancient Christians also didn't have problem with it, since ἔκτισε of the LXX still not the same as ποιηθέντα, which was the term condemned by the Nicene Creed. Pope Dionysius explained that ἔκτισε has many shades and meanings in the Greek language, does not mean what Arianism asserts. Secondly, the Wisdom of Proverb 8:22 is not the Logos himself, it does not identify and equate with the Logos per se, but a literary form allegory applied, attributed to the Logos according to the rules of typology, and not to identify (equate) the two, so this could not be used to support a doctrine anyway. Interestingly, the Jehovah’s Witness leaders themselves have admitted that the original Hebrew is in the feminine gender. In their book entitled God’s Eternal Purpose Now Triumphing for Man’s Good, page 28 we read,

    “Our thinking here reminds us of what is said in the 8th chapter of the Book of Proverbs, where divine wisdom is depicted as a person who talks about himself. Of course in the original Hebrew text of Proverbs, the word wisdom is in the feminine and speaks of itself as a female person. Divine wisdom does not have any separate existence apart from God. Wisdom always existed in Him, and so was not created. For this reason it is interesting to hear how wisdom speaks of herself as a feminine person.”

    So there, without any real explanation of why they did so, they have admitted that they have changed that portion of Scripture from feminine to neuter in the NWT without any satisfactory reason for doing so. It should be mentioned that Hebrew has only masculine and feminine genders. So feminine nouns would, at times, be given neuter pronouns by the translators. However, Proverbs 7:4–5 indicates clearly that the writer of Proverbs intended Wisdom to be presented as a woman. So the Wisdom of Proverbs 8 is nothing more than the poetically personified, gradual realization and manifestation of eternally existing, divine, uncreated wisdom in the created world, starting from the embryonic state of chaos up to the crown of the completed world, the son of man.

    https://www.forananswer.org/Top_JW/Bowman_Prov8.htm

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