If God’s people can’t see anti-God verses in the Bible

by Ireneus 25 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Ireneus
    Ireneus
    Hi myelaine

    I meant the first meaning of the word property [“a thing or things belonging to someone”]. It is the same word my mom’s attorney used in the Court during the hearing of her divorce case saying my dad was treating her as his property, as an object to give him a sensual treat whenever he wanted, not as an individual to be cherished. Judge understood what her attorney meant when he used the word “property.” And she got divorce from my dad, and she has never bothered even to think about him which shows how much she hates someone who used her as his property.

    I have also heard some girls using the same word in our college campus to keep away certain selfish boys from them.

    Back to your question: “Since love God and love your neighbour as yourself is a distillation of the law, how can obeying that law be a sin against humanity?

    In exalting one nation over others (Deuteronomy 28:1, 10, 13) and even authorizing them to own Gentile people as their slaves "for ever" (Leviticus 25:44-46.), and also in Woman being spoken as the property of men in (1 Corinthians 14:34-35), there is no love of the neighbor—it betrays total disregard for them (which is opposite of love). And also it undermines the primary truth that we are all humans first, children of God. Ultimately, whether we gave a humane treatment to other human beings or not—this is what counts. (Mathew 25:32-46)

  • Drearyweather
    Drearyweather

    I don't see the scriptures that you listed as anti-God. Maybe we both interpret them differently. This is my take:

    1) Phinehas who performed a double murder when a Jew married a Gentile is praised by Moses.

    The issue here was not "marriage". Numbers 25:1 onwards mentions that Israelites committed sexual immorality with the Moabite women and were worshipping the immoral God Baal. Things that were clearly commanded to have abstained from. Bringing a Moabite woman when people were weeping near the tent and committing fornication was an act of blatant defiance of the law.

    'Murder' is an unlawful killing of an individual. However, what the Israelite man did was against the laws of Israel and was dealt with as per the law and not by a random act of personal vengeance. It was an act of personal dedication to the divine worship, something that Israel was supposed to uphold and not defy.

    This was not murder, it was an open act of defiance. In current times, an open act of defiance to the sovereignty of a nation will attract severe punishments, sometimes death.

    2) Moses is shown as exalting one nation over others

    No. It was not like choosing the UK over the US.

    Jehovah did not choose an already established nation of Israel. Rather, Jehovah chose Abraham due to his faith and blessed him that his family would be special to Jehovah. Israel became a chosen nation due to Abraham's faith.

    However, Israel was not chosen to perpetuity. In fact, disobedience led to severe punishments to Israel and later banishment from being the chosen nation.

    It was like having a special relationship with someone. Having a best friend or a special friend does not mean that I am being partial or that I don't love others.

    and even authorizing them to own Gentile people as their slaves "for ever"

    Slavery in Israel as not like the tyrannical or ruthless slavery practiced during the middle ages. Slaves in Israel were protected under the law and had their own rights.

    Yes, as you said, Israel could own Gentiles as their slaves. However, Leviticus 25:46 onwards also says that Israelites could own other poor Israelite as hired workers. Above that, Israelites could even become slaves of the Gentiles. (Lev. 25:47).

    3) Woman is spoken as the property of men in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35:

    It speaks about the subjection of a wife to her husband's authority not being a property for sensual satisfaction. The subjection was not akin to domination, because, Ephesians 5:28 says: husbands should love their wives as their own bodies. A man who loves his wife loves himself.

    According to Jesus, Jewish laws that include laws about woman such as the above should remain until "heaven and earth pass".

    According to Jesus, the law would remain 'until everything is accomplished' (Matt 5:17-18). The law was accomplished when Christ was executed on the cross/stake. (Col 2:14; Gal 6:24, 25) Hence we are no longer under the law.

    People who claim to be God’s own would shudder at such anti-God verses found in the Bible

    No. For believers, these passages show God's wrath against law-defying people. It bolsters their faith in the God of Justice. That's how things are. We can do very little about it.

    A person may shudder at the savagery mentioned in the Bible but may be completely fine with the more than 100,000 abortions done every day.

    In the end, it is all about how a person spins these passages around to advocate his point.

  • Ireneus
    Ireneus

    Drearyweather,

    You are right because you are seeing things form Moses' point of view. What I wrote was from Father's view--how a father would treat his children. No father would exalt one child over others, one sex over other sex, one nation over others ...etc.

  • myelaine
    myelaine

    dear Ireneus...

    The law came from God. It was delivered to Israel by Moses. The law covenant was a written contractual agreement between God and Israel, not Moses and Israel.

    Also, the bible doesn't say that God is Father of all. It does say that the Lord knows His own, which implies there are some that are not His. One aspect of the salvation which is in Christ is our adoption as sons and daughters.

    If you consider that God made special provision in the law covenant for people that weren't His children, you'll see that He went beyond what most earthly fathers would do.

    michelle

  • Ireneus
    Ireneus

    Hi myelaine

    Genesis 1:26 says God is the Father of all human beings—a fact that Bible repeats in many places—such as in Ephesians 4:6 …

    “The God who made the world and all things in it, since He is Lord of heaven and earth, does not dwell in temples made with hands; nor is He served by human hands, as though He needed anything, since He Himself gives to all people life and breath and all things; and He made from one man every nation of mankind to live on all the face of the earth.”—Acts 17:24

  • myelaine
    myelaine

    dear Ireneus...

    God created all things in the beginning, but He is not Father to all things or all people. Being "father" involves a desire for relationship.

    Scriptures says that God does WANT to be Father of all people because His will or desire is that ALL would be saved/adopted through His Son.

    According to scripture, A&E were the only human beings directly created by God. Everyone else is a son of man...even Jesus is Son of man. It takes a conscience decision on the part of man to want to become a son of God...to call Him Father.

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