For those who believe that the Bible reveals that Jesus is the Archangel or any other angel, how do you reconcile that belief with Hebrews chapter one?
Notice that Hebrews 1:4 says that the Son has become better than the angels. How can Jesus be angel, even the Archangel Michael, if Jesus has become better than ALL the angels?
Note that Hebrews 1:6 says that ALL of God's angels are to worship (or do obeisance) to God's Firstborn Son. [Note that in Hebrews 1:6 Paul is quoting from the Septuagint translation of Deuteronomy 32:43 (which is in harmony with the manuscripts found at Qumran by the Dead Sea, in contrast to the Masoretic Hebrew text). For examples of the quote from the Septuagint, see the footnote to Deuteronomy 32:43 in the 1951-1960 NWT, the 1971 NWT, and in the 1984 Reference NWT (and also the scripture cross-reference to the LXX in the 1951-1960, 1971, and 1984 editions of the NWT) and notice that it says "let all the angels of God worship him" - they do not say "do obeisance" in the footnote for that verse. The Augmented Third Edition of The New Oxford Annotated Bible edition of the NRSV (which says "all you gods" in Deut. 32:43) says "All you gods, the divine council (v. 8n.; Ps 29.1), probably removed from the received Heb text because of the conflict with monotheism (see v v. 8-9n.)." This is one of the evidences that the NT writers relied more upon the wording of the Greek Septuagint (and/or Hebrew texts consistent the Qumran scrolls) instead of the received/traditional Massretic Hebrew text. As a result, Christian Bibles probably should be translating their OT from the Greek Septuagint instead of the Massoretic Hebrew text.]
How do you explain 2:5 (in 1984 NWT) which says "it was not angels that God subjected the inhabited earth to come"?