Shunning and Laws against incitement to hatred based on Race and Religion

by AlanB 10 Replies latest jw friends

  • AlanB
    AlanB

    In the UK we have a law that seeks to protect against incitement of Racial or Religious hatred. I think this may be a European law and so the scope may be a lot wider.

    It is clear that the WTBS policy on DA/DF people is incitement and it may be argued that it is on the basis of religious views. In which case of body of elders insisting that family members no longer associate with a person could be illegal.

    I was wondering if anyone has considered this or if any research has been done on this issue?

  • badolputtytat
    badolputtytat

    I would like to know more about the specifics of this law... but it sounds like something that could be used BY the witnesses, rather than AGAINST them.

    I mean, one could argue(and some have) that this web-site is inciting "hatred" or "discrimination" against the dubs.

    Would be awful if Simon, was put on Britains "ten most wanted criminals" list for inciting "religous Hatred". (you baaad ol puttytat)

    Again, I don't know the specifics, but it is an interesting topic to investigate. I always wondered why none of the child "welfare" laws applied, to where you are going with this though.

    --puttytat

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    AlanB wrote:

    : It is clear that the WTBS policy on DA/DF people is incitement and it may be argued that it is on the basis of religious views. In which case of body of elders insisting that family members no longer associate with a person could be illegal.

    : I was wondering if anyone has considered this or if any research has been done on this issue?

    I've considered this issue a great deal, from the perspective of the American Constitution. While there is no specific law in the U.S. like the one you describe, so far as I know, I think that the Constitution contains prohibitions which, if interpreted and enforced properly, amount to the same thing. The First Amendment to the Constitution contains language that says that government cannot restrict freedom of worship. Obviously that has limits because no one will argue that the Constitution allows, say, child sacrifice in the name of religion. A major court case (early 1990s?) held that taking drugs because it was religiously required is not allowed when drugs laws are violated. The point is that when generally applicable laws are violated, the First Amendment cannot be used to justify breaking the law. The First Amendment says nothing about what government should do when individual religious rights conflict with organizational religious rights, but in recent decades courts have almost always sided with organizations over individuals. I believe that this is a perversion of the intent of the founding fathers. I think that the U.K. law is a step in the right direction in that its principles could be used to push U.S. courts into ruling more on the side of individual rights. Thus, if someone is disfellowshipped for "apostasy", that would be a violation of individual religious rights by an organization.

    badolputtytat said:

    : I mean, one could argue(and some have) that this web-site is inciting "hatred" or "discrimination" against the dubs.

    One could certainly argue for this, but it would be a bad argument because it would be tantamount to arguing that any and all criticism of anything amounts to inciting hatred or discrimination. It is not "inciting hatred" to tell a story about one's perceived abuse by an organization. It is not discriminatory to point out the flaws in an organization.

    AlanF

  • saturday_morning_slavery
    saturday_morning_slavery

    The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms protects "freedom of speech" among other things (religion, racial discrimination). So, if I was to be disfellowshipped (for apostacy) because I critized the GB or questioned some doctrinal issue would they be in violation of the Charter of Rights and Freedoms? Especially since, as we know, a recent court case specifically stated that the rights of religion are not "absolute"?

  • Euphemism
    Euphemism

    Alan, just a couple of remarks on your post:

    A major court case (early 1990s?) held that taking drugs because it was religiously required is not allowed when drugs laws are violated

    That would be Human Resources v Smith 494 US 872. That case overturned several decades of First-Amendment jurisprudence which held that the mere application of a neutral and reasonable law was not enough; the government must show a compelling interest in enforcing a particular law over religious scruples.

    (I should add that some could perhaps argue that a compelling interest was present in that case. The court, however, explicitly threw out the compelling interest test, and adopted the 'neutral and generally applicable' standard instead. Legal scholars can endlessly debate the correctness of one view vs the other; personally, I think that Smith was a disgrace.)

    Thus, if someone is disfellowshipped for "apostasy", that would be a violation of individual religious rights by an organization.

    How can that be? The bill of rights does not protect individuals from private organizations. It protects them from the government, and only the government. Any personal protections against actions by private organizations are a matter of statute, not constitutional law.

    One can argue that a law forbidding disfellowshipping would not violate the free exercise clause. But one cannot argue that disfellowshipping itself violates the First Amendment, because it is not a governmental action, nor done under color of governmental authority.

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    Hi Euphemism,

    Thanks for the info about the drug case.

    : That would be Human Resources v Smith 494 US 872. That case overturned several decades of First-Amendment jurisprudence which held that the mere application of a neutral and reasonable law was not enough; the government must show a compelling interest in enforcing a particular law over religious scruples.

    I applaud that decision. If people as individuals must obey certain laws, then people as members of organizations, and the organizations themselves -- including religious organizations -- ought to obey the same laws. Anything else is discriminatory and, I feel, violates the spirit evident in the writings of the American founding fathers, which means equal treatment under the law for everyone. Why should any person or group of persons be singled out for special privileges, any more than any should be singled out for special sanctions?

    : (I should add that some could perhaps argue that a compelling interest was present in that case.

    I think so, for reasons stated above.

    : The court, however, explicitly threw out the compelling interest test, and adopted the 'neutral and generally applicable' standard instead.

    Which I think was a very good idea, for reasons stated above.

    : Legal scholars can endlessly debate the correctness of one view vs the other; personally, I think that Smith was a disgrace.)

    So you disagree with what I said above? If so, please explain why. Include an analysis of why anyone ought to get special privileges from the government, especialy privileges to allow conduct that would otherwise land a person in prison.:: Thus, if someone is disfellowshipped for "apostasy", that would be a violation of individual religious rights by an organization.

    : How can that be?

    Because it's slander or libel. It would not be a violation of the constitution per se, but it would still be a violation of religious rights, just as it would be a violation of religious rights for, say, the Catholic Church to instigate mobs to disrupt assemblies of Jehovah's Witnesses. Just as courts in the 1940s ruled against various violations of the religious rights of JWs by government and other organizations, so should they rule against JWs violating the religious rights of those who JWs label as "apostates".

    According to the Watchtower, an "apostate" is a vile person worthy of death by God. You only have to read Watchtower literature to see the horrible things attributed to all "apostates", who after all, often do nothing worse than disagree with JW religious leaders. One can hold such unpleasant opinions personally of anyone one likes, but one is not necessarily free to announce such opinions to others or to write publicly about such opinions, because such public statements usually amount to slander or libel. Public statements that are objectively true are not slander or libel, but a claim that someone is an "apostate" and fits everything that Watchtower claims for them is not. And when such an announcement leads to forced shunning and its consequences, such as total loss of family relationships and friendships, and even ability to earn a living, it certainly damages people unnecessarily.

    It's like shouting "Fire!" in a crowded theatre. One can argue that prohibiting this is a violation of the First Amendment, but because of the damage it can do to others, such irresponsible behavior must be controlled by law, and those who do such damage with their words ought to be held accountable for what they do. So it is with irresponsible behavior in the religious arena. One should not be allowed to shout the equivalent of "Fire!" if it does massive damage to human relationships. It amounts to defamation of character. It can permanently damage relations between parents and children, brothers and sisters, etc. It should not be allowed by law, and it certainly should not be given special protection under the guise of constitutionally protected "religious freedom". When an organization puts in place procedures to ensure that people are forced to shun others, that amounts to conspiracy to commit defamation of character. It means that people are forced, on pain of punishment, to shun people they don't even know. This has nothing to do with individual freedom to practice religion as one sees fit. It is a gross overstepping of what ought to be the bounds of religious freedom.

    : The bill of rights does not protect individuals from private organizations. It protects them from the government, and only the government. Any personal protections against actions by private organizations are a matter of statute, not constitutional law.

    I don't believe that's right. At least, it ought not to be right. Discrimination of all sorts is prohibited, and equal protection under the law is guaranteed, by the constitution and by the Declaration of Independence. Statutes that a court holds to be discriminatory are usually invalidated. Furthermore, the U.S. government (as well as many European governments) usually will force various private organizations, and even state or local governments, to abide by non-discriminatory rules by withholding government money. In many cases this is a good thing since organizations are often run by people with private biases who misuse their power.

    In any case, until relatively recently, as you pointed out, the courts got involved in the religious arena by specifically preventing people from collecting damages from religious organizations that had defamed them and damaged their relations with family and friends. This is one thing that I want to see reversed. Not allowing people to collect damages for this is like the government preventing people damaged by someone who shouts "Fire!" in a theatre from collecting damages.

    : One can argue that a law forbidding disfellowshipping would not violate the free exercise clause. But one cannot argue that disfellowshipping itself violates the First Amendment, because it is not a governmental action, nor done under color of governmental authority.

    I agree. But by the same token, courts never should have held that religious organizations are insulated from lawsuits brought by individuals who they damaged. If an individual can be held responsible for damaging someone, then a religious organization should be held equally responsible for causing similar damage.

    AlanF

  • mustang
    mustang

    Unfortunately, the WTS (& other religions) have the "Church Law" shield. This basically says that when you voluntarily (???) join the Church you have waived certain rights. (That's #1.)

    Number Two is that they effectively get accorded "professional courtesy" as another GOVERNMENT because of that Church Law beep-beep stuff. So they are allowed to have their own RELIGIOUS COURTS/TRIBUNALS. These, of course, enforce RELIGIOUS LAWS.

    The Secular Court will tell you to "go exhaust the remedies under the RELIGIOUS COURTS".

    "Oh, you have? Well, we can't help you then!!!".

    Effectively, God is the only Higher Authority now!!! (Funny, how did we get here??)

    This is apparent when the Case Law statements have made precedents with such pronouncements as "we don't have jurisdiction here..." in cases against churches.

    Secular Courts "don't do windows", they "don't do Church Law" and they DON'T WANT TO TOUCH THIS WITH YOUR BODY PARTS, NOT TO MENTION THEIRS!!!

    So, the WTS weasels out of the DF'ing lawsuits by such means. Maybe things will change. I don't think enough has been made of the laws regarding SOLICITATION.....

    Mustang

    All that I write or utter is protected by religious fredom under the 1st Ammendment to the Constitution of the Untied States, as the "free exercise" as well as "freedom of speech" clauses.

  • mustang
    mustang

    "Just as courts in the 1940s ruled against various violations of the religious rights of JWs by government and other organizations, so should they rule against JWs violating the religious rights of those who JWs label as "apostates". "

    AlanF

    Yes, the SWORD CUTS BOTH WAYS. But to properly effect this, you might have to DECLARE YOURSELF A CHURCH (even if it is a CHURCH OF ONE PERSON). Then, take advantage of those same Church Laws.

    If very many people "tumble to this" the WTS will have a hemorrhage.

    Mustang

    All that I write or utter is protected by religious fredom under the 1st Ammendment to the Constitution of the Untied States, as the "free exercise" as well as "freedom of speech" clauses.

  • Euphemism
    Euphemism
    If people as individuals must obey certain laws, then people as members of organizations, and the organizations themselves -- including religious organizations -- ought to obey the same laws.

    First of all, just to clear up a little misconception. Freedom of religion does not apply only to individuals who are members of churches. Association with a church that holds a particular belief is likely to help dispel any suspicion that a claim of religious objection is insincere, but it is not a legal requirement. Free exercise of religion is primarily an individual right.

    For example, there was a case in the 60's where a JW worker sued because his company suddenly changes his job to one that involved military projects. I don't remember the eventual outcome of the case, but the employer pointed out that other JWs had been willing to do the military work, and the court held that what was relevant was the personal convictions of the plaintiff.

    Anything else is discriminatory and, I feel, violates the spirit evident in the writings of the American founding fathers, which means equal treatment under the law for everyone. Why should any person or group of persons be singled out for special privileges, any more than any should be singled out for special sanctions?

    Because for many people, religious obligations are the most important ones that there are. Freedom is "the pursuit of happiness"; or in other words, the ability to pursue what one values. Unnecessarily restricting people's practice of their religion is thus a reduction of overall freedom.

    Note that I said "unnecessarily." I am not advocating that religions get a free pass on harmful conduct. If the government could find a way to legislatively forbid the use of gross emotional coercion by religions, that would be constitutional, because it would be in support of a compelling government interest.

    The problem with Smith is that it held that as long as a law is neutral, the government is constitutionally free to simply ignore its impact on religion. Previous jurisprudence did not call for religion to be given a free pass under all circumstances. Rather, it called for a balancing test. Is the issue at stake compelling enough to warrant limiting people's freedom? And is there a less restrictive way of accomplishing the same objective?

    Because it's slander or libel.

    Well that's an entirely separate discussion. If disfellowshipping is slander, however (it can't be libel; it's not published in written form), that would make it a violation of statutory rights, not constitutional rights, and certainly not religious rights.

    Let me give an analogy. Let's say that whenever someone left the organization, the WT broke into their house and burglarized it. Would that be a violation of their religious rights? No, it would be a violation of their property rights.

    This has nothing to do with individual freedom to practice religion as one sees fit.
    Actually, it does. In this case, it has to do with individuals choosing to believe that the WTS is God's channel. That belief may be ridiculous. But part of the freedom of religion is the freedom to believe ridiculous things.
    I don't believe that's right. At least, it ought not to be right.

    But those are two very different things.

    Discrimination of all sorts is prohibited, and equal protection under the law is guaranteed

    Oh, absolutely. The constitutional guarantee of equal protection, however, only applies to governments. Private organizations are prohibited from discrimination by statute, specifically the Civil Rights Act.

    But by the same token, courts never should have held that religious organizations are insulated from lawsuits brought by individuals who they damaged. If an individual can be held responsible for damaging someone, then a religious organization should be held equally responsible for causing similar damage.

    I agree, of course. But you're actually asking that religions be held to a higher standard than individuals. If I go around saying: "I think that we should all shun AlanF because he's a very bad person," that is not slander, nor actionable in any sense.

    Now I actually agree with you that it's reasonable to hold religions to a higher standard, because of the authority they have over their members. But specific laws would have to be enacted to enforce this... and they would have to be narrowly crafted, so as to put the minimum possible burden on religious exercise.

  • badolputtytat
    badolputtytat

    One could certainly argue for this, but it would be a bad argument because it would be tantamount to arguing that any and all criticism of anything amounts to inciting hatred or discrimination. It is not "inciting hatred" to tell a story about one's perceived abuse by an organization. It is not discriminatory to point out the flaws in an organization.

    AlanF

    You are of course right Alan F. I just didn't understand if this law (which I still dont know the specifics of) would be a help to a Disfellowshipped witness? It seems that the law would more protect a witness from being discriminated against by NON witnesses... not a discrimination within this organisation...(which Mustang seems to have a handle on).

    I dunno.... I would like to see this law word for word.

    ---puttytat

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