"Jehovah" in the New Testament

by robhic 41 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Yerusalyim
    Yerusalyim

    Euph,

    Who Knows. My step son tried to get me one...another one...(I wanted to give the one I have to a friend here on the board). The kid behind the desk told my In Good Standing Step son that it was no longer in print.

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    As of a few months ago, the KI was definitely still in print. Someone got me one from his local KH. If you really want one, Yeru, keep a lookout on Ebay.

    AlanF

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    Just for ammo...Inevitably Matt 6:9,10 comes up when JWs attempt to defend the idea that Jesus used the Tetragrammaton. Ask them why since it was considered unlawful by the Jews to utter aloud "The Name" was not once Jesus charged with blasphemy for doing so. He would have been stoned if he defied the Jewish Priesthood and popular practice in this way. The Lord's Prayer is translated as, "Thy name be taboo(as in sacrosanct), thy will be done....." in the "Judaeu-Christian Bible Fully Translated". (William Harwood) It reflects accurately the Greek and is consistant with the absence of the name in the NT as well as the religious environment of the first century CE.

    No, the earliest Christians did not use the Tetragrammaton as they shared all the same superstitions the rest of Judaism of the time did.

  • ellderwho
    ellderwho

    peacefulpete,

    Great point, I just picked up a KIT. Its a great tool, in the front states it uses the Westcott&Hort 1881.

    A good verse is 1Thes.4:15,; Ask the question, How do you get Jehovah from (Lord) KURIOS?

    Then would'nt it be better to transliterate God (Theos) to Jehovah since thats in refrence to the Big "G" God. vs. little "g" god of Jn. 1:1?

    ellderwho

  • metatron
    metatron

    Jesus avoided using the name "Yahweh" ( there is no 'Jehovah' in Hebrew). That's why he said "OUR FATHER" in the Lord's prayer.

    Paul avoided using the name "Yahweh" when said "one God, the Father ... and one Lord, Jesus Christ"

    John's letters, written at the end of the first century, don't contain the name "Jehovah" at all, in the NWT.

    metatron

  • Euphemism
    Euphemism

    Yeru... I'm an active Witness. If you still want a KIT, let me know and I'll see if I can order it locally.

  • robhic
    robhic

    Peaceful Pete says:

    Just for ammo...Inevitably Matt 6:9,10 comes up when JWs attempt to defend the idea that Jesus used the Tetragrammaton. Ask them why if it was considered unlawful by the Jews to utter aloud "The Name" was not once Jesus charged with blasphemy for doing so. He would have been stoned if he defied the Jewish Priesthood and popular practice in this way.

    Interesting. This same reaction when the Pharisees were going to stone him for claiming to be God and Jesus ran away has bothered me. It's like he claimed to be God and instead of doing something cool to prove it to them he ran away. Kinda undermines his position...

    Thanks to all for their input. It is quite helpful.

    Robert

  • Yerusalyim
    Yerusalyim

    I have a KIT. One of the board members was looking for one, had I come across a second one I would have let this one go. Me thinks perhaps my Son-in Law was employing theocratic warfare.

  • ClassAvenger
    ClassAvenger

    Onacruse,

    The site is awesome.

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    Peaceful Pete says:

    The Lord's Prayer is translated as, "Thy name be taboo(as in sacrosanct), thy will be done....." in the "Jewish and Christian Scriptures Fully Translated". (I think I have the title right) It reflects accurately the Greek and is consistant with the absence of the name in the NT as well as the religious environment of the first century CE.

    I have never seen the Lord's Prayer translated in that way and would be interested if you could provide any further details regarding the translation. I am unable to find it on the net under the title you provide and suspect that it is paraphrased.

    I strongly doubt that translating hagiazo as "taboo" reflects the meaning of the Greek at all. Consider how the same word is used elsewhere in the NT :

    1 Corinthians 6:11 "And yet that [i.e. "unrighteous persons"] is what some of you were. But you have been washed clean, but you have been sanctified, but you have been declared righteous..."

    1 Timothy 4:4,5
    "The reason [we do not need to abstain from foods God created to be eaten] is that every creation of God is fine, and [no food] is to be rejected if it is received with thanksgiving, for it is sanctified through God's word and prayer over it.

    Revelation 22:11
    "He that is doing unrighteousness, let him do unrighteousness still; and let the filthy one be made filthy still; but let the righteous one do righteousness still, and let the holy one be made holy still [kai ho agios agiastheto eti]."

    In fact, in the scripture in Timothy Paul says that all food can be used (eaten) because it is sanctified. Even food that they were previously not allowed to eat should no longer be rejected because it is now sanctified. Surely, we should likewise use God's name with respect because it is sanctified. The proper meaning of the word is clear in Revelation where it says "let the holy one be made holy still" in contrast to the filthy one who is made filthy still.

    Earnest

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