6000 yrs for mankind (page 3)

ReadOnly

It seems to me that if modern man emerged 300,000 years ago, we would have some written evidence of that fact dating well beyond 6000 years.

What reasons do you have to think that?

And is written evidence the only evidence that counts?

Why did it take roughly 5700 of the roughly 6000 years under the religious model for humans to enter the industrial age? Why did we rely primarily on muscle power for so long when the building blocks of simple engines were all there? What does this say about the plausibility of the timeline?

Probably nothing.

Breakthroughs and innovations don't happen on a schedule. They happen when the right set of people and circumstances come together.

Written language, like art and modern music is a luxury and like all luxuries, it required a certain amount of leisure time to develop.

From what we know of prehistory, humans simply didn't have that kind of time. --Certainly not during the Glacial Age, which only ended about ten thousand years ago.

Phizzy

As to the History of Writing, we can only go by examples that have been found, on Clay Tablets, as nothing inferior would have survived.

It could well be that systems of " writing" in some form, perhaps keeping a tally of goods and stocks of stuff say, may have existed long before writing on Clay Tablets, it just never survived, if carved on wood or whatever.

Pure Hunter Gatherers of course were as TD hints above, unlikely to need or to use writing. But later Hunter Gatherers who were moving toward being agrarian may possibly have done so. If the need was there. And that is the point, most advances and changes by humans were driven by need.

There is no doubt at all that humans have been around, a lot longer then the Bible allows for.

If we say that as recently as 150,000 years ago mankind was fully sentient, fully conscious of " Self", which is what makes us Human in part, what was the Bible God doing for 144,000 (LOL) of those years until he made Adam ?