Hi VI,
Perhaps I'm not explaining it clearly
so I will try again.
In the Greek construct of the sentence,
not the English construct, the Word already existed BEFORE the
beginning.
I'm not sure if the Greek fonts will
post correctly but let me try In Greek:
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Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ
ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεός
ἦν ὁ λόγος
|
Or transliterated making it easier to
read in English it reads:
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En archē ēn ho Lógos, kai ho Lógos ēn pros ton Theón,
kai Theós ēn ho Lógos.
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In the first part which is often called
the (a) clause ending at the the word “logos” means he (the
logos) is already existing with no beginning, no starting point. That
eliminates the Word from being part of the creation, and therefor the
Arian position bites the dust in the very first clause of John 1:1, yes it's that simple.
Now I am NOT talking about a particular
or private belief that I may hold, I am trying to explain that in Koine
or common Greek, the form of Greek John 1:1 is written in, it says the Word
already existed ( ēn ho Lógos was i.e. past tense) even before
time began (En archē).
No there is no ambiguity, there is no
having a different point of view on this, the Greek is the Greek,
this is science, yes it's that precise, Koine Greek follows strict rules and according to the Greek, the Word always existed,
even before time started.
And speaking of science, as an aside, isn't
it interesting that in the very same sentence (first part of John 1:1) it says that time
itself had a definite starting point. Who knew that the Bible
espouses one of the key elements of the Big Bang Theory. Very cool!
Not sure if I made it any clearer but I
gave it my best shot.
Freeman
