Cite one scripture in the N.T. that chargers Christians to be witnesses of / for Jehovah.....Not one.using K.I ./ WTB&TS
by smiddy3 99 Replies latest jw friends
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johnamos
Transcription of the divine name as ΙΑΩ in the 1st-century BCE 4Q120
In addition to smaller text-critical variants, the manuscript displays the divine name in Greek characters, as ΙΑΩ (the trigrammaton) in Leviticus 3:12 (frg. 6) and 4:27 (frg. 20), instead of later practice of replacing it with κύριος ("Lord"). Skehan suggests that this is more original than Kurios.[3] Emmanuel Tov claims the use of Greek trigrammaton as proof that the "papyrus represents an early version of the Greek scripture..." antedating the text of the main manuscripts of Septuagint LXX.[4] The Codex Marchalianus is the only other extant manuscript of the Septaugint that uses ΙΑΩ to transcribe the tetragrammaton.[5]
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slimboyfat
Jesus is the agent of Jehovah. The name Jesus means “Jehovah is salvation”, and the early Christians knew this, so each and every time Christians witnessed to Jesus they were witnesses to Jehovah.
Everything Jesus did pointed to Jehovah and his power.
Acts 10:38 Jesus who was from Nazʹa·reth, how God anointed him with holy spirit and power, and he went through the land doing good and healing all those oppressed by the Devil, because God was with him.
Jesus is the only name Jehovah gave under heaven by which people can be saved.
Acts 4:10–12 let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel that in the name of Jesus Christ the Naz·a·reneʹ, whom you executed on a stake but whom God raised up from the dead, by means of him this man stands here healthy in front of you. This is ‘the stone that was treated by you builders as of no account that has become the chief cornerstone.’ Furthermore, there is no salvation in anyone else, for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must get saved.”
The whole purpose being to call out of the nations a people for Jehovah’s name.
Acts 15:14–18 Symeon has related thoroughly how God for the first time turned his attention to the nations to take out of them a people for his name. And with this the words of the Prophets agree, just as it is written: ‘After these things I will return and raise up again the tent of David that is fallen down; I will rebuild its ruins and restore it, so that the men who remain may earnestly seek Jehovah, together with people of all the nations, people who are called by my name, says Jehovah, who is doing these things, known from of old.’
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smiddy3
Just to remind people that I am taking issue with the WT/JW/GB .
And their "Kingdom Interlinear Translation Of The Greek Scriptures" which presented under the Greek Text revised by Westcott and Hort (1948 Reprint) a literal word for word translation into English.
So I stand by what I have posted on this subject.
I think the WTB&TS publication titled "The Kingdom Interlinear Of The Christian Greek Scriptures" speaks for itself.
The word for word translation of the Greek into English.
That publication does not even contain the name or word Jehovah either in Hebrew letters or greek letters anywhere in the word for word texts.
So the Jehovah`s Witness religion was dishonest in inserting that name/word Jehovah in that publication.
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slimboyfat
The Westcott and Hort text doesn't contain the divine name (apart from short form Jah in Revelation 19) the Watchtower society are quite open and clear about this. They are also clear about their reasons for believing that the divine name originally occurred in the New Testament and their reasons for restoring it. Why not address those arguments, because Watchtower already agree with you on the point you are making about the Greek text.
The early LXX used the divine name and it was later replaced by Kyrios. For this reason a number of scholars have also argued that the original NT used the divine name, including George Howard, Lloyd Gaston, David Trobisch, John McRay, and Frank Shaw. I can give full references if you are interested to read the arguments in favour of the divine name in the NT. None of these scholars dispute the point that the surviving NT manuscripts use Kyrios instead of the divine name. The issue is what the original NT used.
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Earnest
Are there any LXX texts prior to the second century CE which replace the divine name with "Lord" or "God" ? The silence is deafening. -
Diogenesister
One of the reasons they (cynically imho) took the opportunity, when they were creating another company, to call themselves "Christian Congregation of JW"
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smiddy3
slimboyfat
The early LXX used the divine name...
Can you show it to me ?
Then I would be happy to agree with you
And you are aware slim that this is argument / discussion is getting off topic?
Cite one scripture in the N.T. that chargers Christians to be witnesses of / for Jehovah..
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slimboyfat
About the divine name in the early LXX, see chapter 4 of this thesis, which includes tables of data and pictures.
https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/247d/ccc95c5575844bd7c2f2bf07aae65939aba8.pdf
Every verse that calls Christians witnesses of Jesus makes them witnesses to the fact that Jehovah is salvation, because that is what the name Jesus means, as early Christians were well aware. (Matt 1:21)
Acts 2:32 says that Christians are witnesses to the fact that God raised Jesus and made him Lord, then quotes the OT passage Ps 110:1 which distinguishes Jehovah from Jesus as Lord. This passage makes clear that to be a witness to Jesus is to be a witness to what Jehovah has done to bring salvation through Jesus.
Acts 2:32–36 God resurrected this Jesus, and of this we are all witnesses. Therefore, because he was exalted to the right hand of God and received the promised holy spirit from the Father, he has poured out what you see and hear. For David did not ascend to the heavens, but he himself says, ‘Jehovah said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”’ Therefore, let all the house of Israel know for a certainty that God made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you executed on a stake.”
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johnamos
Even this Bible that replaces the YHVH with LORD is showing that the DN should be in the NT, at least when the OT is quoted.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=psalms+110%3A1&version=AKJV
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+2%3A34&version=AKJV