The Authorship of the Pastoral Epistles

by ThiChi 45 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Narkissos
    Narkissos

    Thi Chi:

    In view of the link I gave on your other thread, I agree that no pauline writing is absolutely uncontested. But sticking to the Pauline legomena of the mainstream consensus (1 Thessalonians, Galatians, Corinthians, Romans, Philippians and Philemon) which offer a relative linguistical and doctrinal unity would make a better basis for comparison as far as authorship is concerned. On your too extensive basis you could even bring 1 Peter into the picture and notice how similar it is to Ephesians: unfortunately, 1 Peter is not supposed to be pauline. So a very wide comparison reference ends up proving nothing as to authorship.

    The similarities between the Pastorals and Acts (which even you date in the 80's, long after than Paul's death on the traditional schedule) are not a good argument, even in the amanuensis hypothesis: if Paul "dictates" the Pastorals to Luke as you say, why the differences with Paul's known style and interests? If Luke writes the Pastorals first and Acts later, why doesn't he allow any time in his "historical" frame for the writing of the Pastorals (since in Acts 20 the parting discourse to the elders in Ephesus is supposed to be their last meeting)?

    Btw, you didn't answer my remark about Marcion.

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    ""if Paul "dictates" the Pastorals to Luke as you say, why the differences with Paul's known style and interests? ""

    This is the main point stressed today by negative scholars. One scholar, for example, found 175 words used nowhere else in the NT and 130 words not used by Paul elsewhere but shared by other NT writers. These statistics have carried great weight with many twentieth-century scholars.

    But such numbers assume that we know everything about Paul's language and do not take into account differences of subject matter, of circumstances, and of addresses - all of which may lead to new words. An accurate statistical study of words requires far more than the limited number we have in the other letters of Paul for comparison.

    I suggest Dr Stephen Wilson's book Luke and the Pastoral Epistles (1979). He builds on Professor Moule's theory, although he thinks that the Luke who wrote the Acts and later the Pastorals was not Paul's companion of the same name. He draws attention to similarities of language and style between Luke-Acts and the Pastorals, and to a number of theological parallels (though with differences of emphasis), e.g. eschatology, salvation, Christian citizenship, church and ministry, Christology, law and Scripture. His over-confident conclusion is that ??certainly, given a choice between Paul and Luke as the author of the Pastorals, Luke is a far more likely candidate??. His tentative hypothesis is that Luke wrote the Pastorals a few years after Acts, making use of Paul's ??travel notes?? which he found. In this way the Pastorals were volume 3 of a trilogy, following the publication of Luke's Gospel and Acts. This alternative would be ??common authorship?? with Luke writing under Paul's direction, as Professor Moule had proposed.

    As time permits, we will address your other questions......

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    ""If Luke writes the Pastorals first and Acts later, why doesn't he allow any time in his "historical" frame for the writing of the Pastorals (since in Acts 20 the parting discourse to the elders in Ephesus is supposed to be their last meeting)?""

    Really, you have to start with II Tim. Which can be fitted into Paul's career described in Acts. Specifically II Tim is deemed reconcilable with the assumption that after the two years of relatively easy detention in Rome (the last reference in Acts 28:30-31), Paul was subjected to harsher jailing that led to his death there ca. 64 or shortly afterwards. II Tim would have been written in a context just before that death without any "second career" leading to a second imprisonment ca. 65. How do the data of II Tim fit into that minority hypothesis? We are not told where Timothy was; but when he would come to Paul he was to be accompanied by Mark and to bring a cloak and books that the apostle left at Troas (4:11, 13). From the surface of evidence, therefore, one might assume that Timothy was at Troas; and that is not implausible on the basis of other NT evidence. Acts 20:5-13 reported that in 58, on his way to Jerusalem and eventual imprisonment in Caesarea and Rome, Paul met Timothy at Troas and spent seven days there. If I Tim were written from Rome ca. 64 in his continued imprisonment, Paul's career would not have brought him back to Troas after 58 to retrieve things he might have left there (perhaps because he had hoped to pick them up when he traveled from Jerusalem via Rome to Spain: Rom 15:24-25). Troas was a place that historically Paul had wanted to evangelize. When he left Ephesus in the summer of 57, he had begun successfully to preach at Troas, but was forced by his anxiety over Corinth to move on quickly to Macedonia (II Cor 2:12-13). Timothy may have picked up the task, whence Paul's addressing the letter to him there. II Tim 4:16 has Paul tell Timothy that in his first defense (at Rome?) no one took his part and all deserted him. It may be that his one and only Roman imprisonment had now tuned harsh (perhaps because that defense was not successful), and it was important that Paul tell Timothy what was happening at Rome in order to summon his closest confidant to one last meeting before Paul's approaching death (4:6-8). Paul's foreboding would have been verified in Rome 64 (or even later) when Nero began to execute Christians.

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    Regarding Marcion, you get a cigar. However, as stated, he was a heretic......

  • Euphemism
    Euphemism
    The fact is, there is not enough evidence to disprove the Historical View of Authorship.

    Of course the idea that Paul wrote the Pastorals cannot be disproven. For that matter, the idea that Jesus was a space alien cannot be disproven either.

    (For more on the issue of burdens of proof, see my post in your other thread.)

    You can make elaborate justifications to show how it would be possible for Paul to have written the letters; or you can recognize that the contrasts to his authentic letters make it more likely that they are pseudepigraphical.

    Neither position is 100% provable; it's a matter of following the preponderance of the evidence.

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    Your circular reasoning is entertaining, and your point, agian proves nothing. However, no evidence has been provided to persuade me that Paul did not write the letters that are attributed to him.

    Instead of labeling and other poor debateing tactics, I have provided plausible proof to counter claims.

    ""You can make elaborate justifications....."""

    The same could be said for those who adhere to the the inerrancy doctrine, like yourself. The use of terms like "more likely" is very telling......

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    "....his authentic letters make it more likely that they are pseudepigraphical."

    First, although it has become a commonplace ever since Baur for defenders of pseudonymity to maintain that it was an acceptable practice, and that there was no intention to deceive, they yet offer ??no historical evidence for their assertions that New Testament pseudepigrapha were recognised as such and were regarded as innocent compositions...?? On the contrary, as Dr L R. Donelson concedes, ??we are forced to admit that in Christian circles pseudonymity was considered a dishonourable device??. A pseudonymous work was either believed and therefore esteemed, or exposed and therefore condemned. There seems to be no evidence that some pseudonymous works were both exposed and esteemed. Several commentators quote the judgment of Serapion, the early third-century bishop of Antioch. Concluding that the Gospel of Peter was not genuine, he stated this principle: ??We, brothers, receive both Peter and the other apostles of Christ. But pseudepigrapha in their name we reject ...??

    Secondly, the claim that a pseudepigrapher did not intend to deceive, and indeed did not deceive, appears to be self-defeating. If nobody was deceived, what was the point of the subterfuge?

    Thirdly, in spite of confident assurances about the innocence of pseudepigraphy, many of us find that our consciences are not so readily pacified. We remember that Scriptures lays constant emphasis on the sacredness of truth and the sinfulness of false witness. We are not comfortable with the notions of a deceit which does not deceive and a pseudepigraphon which is not a forgery. ??The dictionary definition of "forgery" is fraudulent imitation??, writes Dr J. I. Packer, whatever people's aims and incentives may be. ??Frauds are still fraudulent, even when perpetrated from noble motives??.

    It has often been observed that in most of Paul's letters he associates a colleague with him in its writing, e.g. Sosthenes, missionary associates ??co-labourers??, it would be misleading to call them ??co-authors??. For Paul was careful to affirm his own apostolic authority as the author, and to distinguish his colleagues from him (since they were not apostles) by referring to them as ??our brother Sosthenes?? or ??Timothy our brother??. The Thessalonian letters are significant in this respect. Although they both begin with ??Paul, Silas and Timothy??, and although the first person plural ??we?? is used much of the time, it is nevertheless plain that the leadership role and apostolic authority were Paul's. So he frequently lapses from ??we?? to ??I??. The end of the second letter puts the matter beyond doubt. ??I, Paul, write this greeting in my own hand, which is the distinguishing mark in all my letters. This is how I write.?? So the letter was essentially his letter, written with his apostolic authority. Paul, Silas ad Timothy were not joint authors, although there is no reason to deny that Paul may have involved them in the writing process, by the encouraging them to contribute their thoughts to it.

    An amanuensis, however, was different. Not only did he undertake the actual mechanics of the writing, but Paul may have given him some liberty in clothing the apostle's thought with words. It is possible that this was the arrangement when Tertius wrote down the letter to the Romans. But the only specific New Testament reference to this practice is the apostle Peter's statement that he had written his first letter ??with the help of Silas??, literally ??through Silas??, whom he regarded, he adds, as ??a faithful brother??.

  • Euphemism
    Euphemism
    The same could be said for those who adhere to the the inerrancy doctrine, like yourself.

    With all due respect, WTF are you talking about? The inerrancy doctrine, as far as I am aware, is the idea that the Bible is inerrant. I don't subscribe to that by a long shot.

    And would you care to indicate how my reasonsing is circular? So far, all I've done is demonstrate the fallacy of a cople of your assumptions.

  • ThiChi
    ThiChi

    Argue about cliams by examining reasons, not arguing the "false cause." An explanation is a false cause fallacy if other explanations are easily found......off topic.....

    "inconsistencies" found in books.....this fits if you refute any claims by the writers:

    My last post on this topic, let the readers decide!!

  • peacefulpete
    peacefulpete

    I admit I'm at a loss as to why you posted all that stuff about pseudonymous works being frauds. Of course thats true. Whether the author's motive was good in their own eyes (it always is) they were using another author's name to gain an audience or add authority to their views.

    I find parallels to the Wt approach to preempting objections in 2 Thess 2:2. The best way to remove suspictions about a counterfeit letter is to admonish the readers to ignore counterfeit letters! Brilliant and ancient technique. It's just like the WT writing to admonish critical thinking and avoiding of cults. However you feel about this matter that verse makes clear that there were counterfeit Pauline letters circulating. The motive for this and the 1Thess was clearly to explain why the end had not come despite destruction of the Temple and death of all the first believers (the latter somthing that was promised not to happen) 1 Thess also affirms the Proto-orthodox authority to declare opposers heretics.

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit