A book on the pronunciation of God's Name

by Doug Mason 44 Replies latest watchtower bible

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  johnamos

  quote - It has already been discussed on this forum that copies of the Septuagint...the fact that a Greek version of the name - end quote

  This is not a reply in regards to your post, but what I quoted you saying stood out in my mind to check the following.

  This Greek word translates to Jesus in English:

  Ιησοῦς

  That Greek word translates to this Hebrew word:

  ישו

  That Hebrew word translates to Jesus in English.

  I got that Greek word from the Septuagint where it has the name Joshua. Joshua is the shorten form of Jehoshua.

  JEsus

  JOshua

  JEhOshua
  
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  johnamos

  Here is a better example of my point and of what I am questioning. Why are the following 3 names (Jehoshaphat, Jotham, Isaiah) that contain the יהוה (YHVH) in them, why do they get written out using the vowels E, O, A, so that they can be read and pronounced, but when the יהוה (YHVH) appears in regards to God’s name, instead of inserting the vowels E, O, A, in the same manner as done for those names, instead ‘LORD’ is inserted. Why not either write out the יהוה (YHVH) as Yehoah//Jehoah or write out those names as:

  LORDshaphat

  YHVshaphat

  LORDtham

  YVtham

  IsaLORD

  IsaYH

  The following shows what letters from God's name make up those names and what vowels are used:

  YHVH יהוה

  Yehoshaphat YHV יהו

  Yotham YV יוֹ

  Yshayah YH יה

  Yehoah YHVH יהוה
  

  Joel 3:2 I will also gather all nations, and will bring them down into the valley of Jehoshaphat, and will plead with them there for my people and for my heritage Israel, whom they have scattered among the nations, and parted my land.

  https://biblehub.com/joel/3-2.htm

  https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3092.htm

  Joel 3:11 Assemble yourselves, and come, all ye heathen, and gather yourselves together round about: thither cause thy mighty ones to come down, O LORD.

  https://biblehub.com/joel/3-11.htm

  https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3068.htm

  Isaiah 1:1 The vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem in the days of Uzziah, Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah, kings of Judah.

  https://biblehub.com/isaiah/1-1.htm

  https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3147.htm

  https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3470.htm

  Isaiah 1:11 To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me? saith the LORD: I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of lambs, or of he goats.

  https://biblehub.com/isaiah/1-11.htm

  https://biblehub.com/hebrew/3068.htm

  
  

  
  
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  peacefulpete

  So, the question is... why didn't the Masoretes inject the whole word Adonai as the beginning of the theophoric name, but rather inserted vowel sounds to prevent the reading aloud the DN? I suppose it could have been done that way but it intrudes of the text rather loudly. A more subtle approach would accomplish the same without jolting the reader. There were factors that directed the choices made but we may never fully understand them....the whims of the particular scholar, the times and community biases, the perceived preferences of readers, who knows?
  
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  Earnest

  peacefulpete : I can't find any evidence they (or their roots) definitely pronounced the DN at any point prior to the Medieval establishment as a separate group. If not they would not have any special insights regarding the pronunciation being hundrds of years after the prohibition.

  In Jacob Qirqisani's account of the Jewish sects ("The Book of Lights and Watch-Towers") he writes:

  Some of the Karaites of Khorasan do not recognise the Ketib and the Qeri and read [the Torah] just as it is written; some of these Karaites do so even with the [Holy] name which is written yod-he [YH = tetragrammaton]; they assert that whoever reads it as [if it were written] alef-daleth [AD = adonai (lord)] is a heretic.

  Jacob Qirqisani was a Karaite scholar from Syria who lived in the first half of the tenth century. Quite clearly in his time there were Jews reading the Torah and using God's name rather than substituting adonai (Lord). If they were doing so, and asserting it was heretical not to do so, it is obvious they were able to pronounce it.
  
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  Phizzy

  Did the early Bible writers think in their minds that there was a single name for god ? the earliest certainly did in my view, being believers in the existence of many gods they would identify theirs by name. El probably.

  But it would seem that as they evolved in there Theology toward being Monotheists, they began to think that god did not have a single name, but many names that described his qualities. It would seem to me that the Exodus scripture is trying to get this point across, that god will be what he wants to be, and can be whatever he wants to be, mostly. I say mostly because a couple of scriptures show clearly where the god of Israel was unable to achieve something, so not Almighty then !

  The fuss about there being a single name of god seems to be on dodgy ground, and to insist that YHWH is that name is even more dodgy. If you only believe in one god, as a being above all others, why would he need a name ?

  To insist that it is some how virtuous to use a single, discrete, name in any form or pronunciation as JW's do is like most if not all of their teachings, not really supported by a proper reading of the Bible.