Kingdom Interlinear question?

by imherczeg 12 Replies latest watchtower bible

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  imherczeg

  I'm in a bible study with a very nice Jehovah's Witness.

  She was kind enough to give me a copy of "The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the GREEK SCRIPTURES" 1985 edition.

  It states in the beginning of the book that the THREE BIBLE TEXTS...

  Greek Text Above comes from B.F. Westcott and F.J.A. Hort (1881)

  English Text Underneath comes from "An interlinear word-for-word translation into English" 1969

  English Text Alongside comes from the 1984 NWT

  My question is this... in the "English Text Underneath" whose 1969 "word-for-word" translation is this? the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society? or someone else?(if someone else, who?)

  Thanks
• 

  DJ

  It is the translation of the jw bible committee..which was their own society governing body members.. One can hardly call it unbiased!
• 

  Yerusalyim

  Having said that, it's amazing how many discrepencies exist between the "English underneath, and NWT.
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  Narkissos

  Agreed. I remember, shortly after being disfellowshipped, having a very good discussion with two JWs visiting me (not knowing who I was) on the basis of the KIT. Seeing how "Jehovah" was introduced instead of "kurios" ("Lord") in Romans 10:13, destroying Paul's argument in the whole chapter, was quite a surprise to them...
• 

  ellderwho

  ImherczegWelcome,

  you have a Private Message.
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  peacefulpete

  Ultimatly translating is only one small part of the reason for sectarian Xtianity. Each group including the more dangerous ones like JWs simply uses the bible as a tool. Emphasize the phrases that you like and spin the ones you don't It's second nature when indoctrinated and invested in a certain belief system. Point out the flaws of rival groups while presenting a sugar coated image of your own. Using a certain "accurate" Bible translation is simply a piece of propaganda. All translating is interpretive. Using one that was made for the group's use further isolates the JWs from the outside. The terminolgy and phasing become unique to the group giving the group a private language and an identifier.
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  peacefulpete

  Narkissos, please check out the thread "blondie's comments thread made me think" give us you expert take. It's just before this one.
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  imherczeg

  Narkissos,

  Can you elabroate on your agruement of Romans 10?

  Thanks
• 

  FirstInLine

  The KIT (purple) is one of the single greatest books the society ever put out against its own cause. I am surprised they gave you a KIT though. I thought they had made the full conversion to emphatic diaglotts by now. Good to hear, keep it safe. If you decide to heed our warnings and take up the cause it will come in handy.
• 

  Narkissos

  Romans 10 (NWT):

  10Brothers, the goodwill of my heart and my supplication to God for them are, indeed, for their salvation. 2 For I bear them witness that they have a zeal for God; but not according to accurate knowledge; 3 for, because of not knowing the righteousness of God but seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God. 4 For Christ is the end of the Law, so that everyone exercising faith may have righteousness.

  5

  For Moses writes that the man that has done the righteousness of the Law will live by it. 6 But the righteousness resulting from faith speaks in this manner: "Do not say in your heart, ?Who will ascend into heaven?? that is, to bring Christ down; 7 or, ?Who will descend into the abyss?? that is, to bring Christ up from the dead." 8 But what does it say? "The word is near you, in your own mouth and in your own heart"; that is, the "word" of faith, which we are preaching. 9 For if you publicly declare that ?word in your own mouth,? that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For with the heart one exercises faith for righteousness, but with the mouth one makes public declaration for salvation.

  11

  For the Scripture says: "None that rests his faith on him will be disappointed." 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for there is the same Lord over all, who is rich to all those calling upon him. 13 For "everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah [NW substitution for the Lord] will be saved." 14 However, how will they call on him in whom they have not put faith? How, in turn, will they put faith in him of whom they have not heard? How, in turn, will they hear without someone to preach? 15 How, in turn, will they preach unless they have been sent forth? Just as it is written: "How comely are the feet of those who declare good news of good things!"

  In Paul's argument, it is essential that he reads the title kurios, "the Lord", not a proper name like "Jehovah", in the Greek translation of Joel he quotes in v. 13. His central reasoning there, shallow as it may seem, says "Christians are saved because they call on the Lord (Jesus), for it is written 'everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved'." Substitute "Jehovah" for the second Lord and there's no logic left.

  The same problem is found in Romans chapter 14:

  5One [man] judges one day as above another; another [man] judges one day as all others; let each [man] be fully convinced in his own mind. 6 He who observes the day observes it to Jehovah. Also, he who eats, eats to Jehovah, for he gives thanks to God; and he who does not eat does not eat to Jehovah, and yet gives thanks to God. 7 None of us, in fact, lives with regard to himself only, and no one dies with regard to himself only; 8 for both if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. Therefore both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah. 9 For to this end Christ died and came to life again, that he might be Lord over both the dead and the living

  You may really wonder what the logical connection implied by "For to this end" is until you realize that the 6 "Jehovahs" before it are wild substitutions for "the Lord" (as the KIT makes clear).