Hello,
I have often engaged in debate on this forum in which I have taken the position that the only logical way of interpreting the Bible -- and in being a genuine Christian -- is to view it as being verbally inspired and binding in all it's details upon all Christians down through the centuries. This is, generally speaking, the way that fundamentalists and Jehovahs Witnesses view the scriptures; the Bible "says what it means, and means what it says" case closed, no if's and's or but's! I do not believe this and consider myself to be an agnostic, a point which I do not find necessary to elaborate on here.
But there are those who do not view the Bible this way. They view the Bible as being the Word of God yet one in which the cultural context of the Jews and early Christians has to be taken into account. For example, homosexuality is condemned quite clearly in the Bible in both the OT and Pauls writings, yet some Christians (and evidently liberal Jews) believe that God allows homosexuality (in a loving context) and that we cannot expect the Bible writers to escape their cultural prejudices and historical time period. From a certain point of view this makes perfect sense yet it does raise some problematic questions, such as:
1) Why couldn't (or wouldn't) Almighty God have inspired the Bible writers to move beyond their societal prejudices in the first place? WHY NOT just "tell them like it is" so to speak?
2) If God would not choose to do so, why not have some sort of progressive revelation which would CLEARLY and DISTINCTLY show His viewpoint when the time was right for society to deal with it?
3) If one takes the viewpoint that God HAS done so, in the sense of the Holy Spirit guiding believers consciences, what is one to make of the discrepencies in viewpoint among members of the Church today? And what CRITERION does one have to figure out what in the Bible is "cultural noise" and what is more "everlasting"?
Thank you.
Bradley