Reasoning from the Scriptures -- p. 414:
Why does John 1:23 quote Isaiah 40:3 and apply it to what John the Baptizer did in preparing the way for Jesus Christ, when Isaiah 40:3 is clearly discussing preparing the way before Jehovah?
Reasoning:
Because Jesus represented his Father, he came in his Father's name. That is, having inherited his Father's name (Hebrews 1:3), he rightly wears the "Name Above Every Name" (Philippians 2:9). Surely, applying the divine name to Jesus is not strange in a book that opens with John's declaration, "the Word was God" and climaxes in Thomas's confession: "My Lord and my God!" Elsewhere (John 17:5), John speaks of the glory shared by the Father and Son. In John 12:41, John declares that Isaiah even beheld this shared glory in the Temple (Isaiah 6:1-10).
The Watchtower, 1 April 1951, says: "At Isaiah 6:10 the speaker at the temple is Jehovah." With one voice, Jehovah (the Father and the Son) says: "Who will go for us?" Thus we see that the prehuman Son was associated with the Father speaking as "Jehovah in his glory at the temple, and hence John could rightly say Isaiah here saw his [the Son's] glory and spoke about him." Clearly, the one who is "L ORD of all" (Acts 10:36) and "God over all" (Romans 9:5) has the right to wear the name of the Father he represents. All are to honor the Son exactly as they honor the Father (John 5:23), "He that does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him."
Although we may not see it today, Scripture assures us that one day ...
Every knee shall bow ...
Every tongue confess ...
"Jesus Christ is L ORD!"
Resulting in glory to God the Father.