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:>Rom 4:15
"15 because law brings wrath. And where there is no law there is no transgression."
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Then the angels didn't sin, Adam and Eve did sin, Cain and Moses didn't committ murder... and sin. Because according to you, there was no law. But you are in error in your understanding of this verse. It is saying WHERE there is no law, there is no transgression. These all 'transgressed'... because there WAS law. That is why the 'nations' weren't held to the same standard as Israel, for they did NOT have the Law written on stone to THEM. And yet, all of the nations will be 'gathered' before my Lord to be jugdged, yes? On the basis of what 'law'?
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:>Rom 5:13-14
13 for before the law was given, sin was in the world. But sin is not taken into account when there is no law."
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Again you misunderstand the verse. May I ask you, before the law was given to WHOM? The world? No, for the law was not GIVEN to the world. The nations? Nope. It was not given to the nations. The Law was GIVEN... to Israel. So, yes, before the Law the sin OF ISRAEL was in the world, but there was no PAYMENT for it by Israel, for they had not had the law WRITTEN... and then covenanted to OBEY it.
Let me ask you... if there was no law... why was EVERYONE but Noah destroyed by the Flood? If there was no Law, for what 'sin' were they paying? What 'wrong' had they committed? Who SAID it was 'wrong'?
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:>"Sin came first, law came second. Law is made for bad, bad has to exist first before law is mandated, as is stated in Romans 5. What is sin?
1 John 3:4
4...sin is lawlessness."
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If SIN... came FIRST... then sin ALWAYS existed, even before Adam and Eve committed it! No, dear one... LAW came first... sin is TRANGRESSION against Law, and therefore sin is LAWLESS-ness. It is people conducting themselves WITHOUT law. Adam and Eve TRANSGRESSES... LAW... and acted WITHOUT law... LAWLESS... and therefore sinned. However, ABEL.. was LAWFUL. Enoch... was LAWFUL. Noah, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph... were all LAWFUL. And yet, none of these had the Law... written. But in fact, they DID. It was not 'written' on stone tablets, but on their HEARTS, exactly where my Father put it.
And He has PUT that law on ALL hearts. However... MANY conduct themselves AGAINST that law... and therefore, are lawLESS. Israel showed themselves to be 'lawLESS' by murmuring and complaining just the better side of the Red Sea. They showed that the law was NOT written on their hearts anymore, their selfish desire had ERASED it, as had Adam's, Eve's and Cain's... and so, since JAH could not write it AGAIN on their hearts... for their hearts were HARD... He wrote it on something as HARD as their hearts... stone tablets.
Sin is indeed 'lawlessness'. And lawlessness... is disobedience. Disobedience... to WHAT?
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:>"Sin is NO control. It is anarchic. Satan was anarchy. Law is the control. The out of control comes first because of the ABSENCE of law, the control of law comes second, because God is a God of order and peace."
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Excellent point. Tell me, did Satan start OUT with anarchy? Or was he CREATED... WITH law... until 'unrighteousness was FOUND in him'? Again, what about the angels that did NOT sin? Did they not use self-control in order NOT to desire the 'daughters of men', the same as WE use it not to commit fornication and adultery? If there was no law, dear one, then ALL creation started OUT with no law... and thus, STARTED in LAWLESSNESS... and therefore, started IN SIN. But it did not. God 'set' things just where it pleased HIM... and created them just as it pleased HIM. And He SAID... it was 'good'. Sin and lawlessness... are bad. LawFULness... is 'good'.
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Your quote of my quote and your response:
:>"For example, I ask you both... with regard to the angels... THAT SINNED, what 'sin' did they commit? What 'law' did they break?
That's that whole point friend. Sin is LAWLESSNESS. When sin breaks law it is called TRANSGRESSION or TRESSPASS. The angels sinned before law."
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Yes, and therefore, if the angels that sinned were lawLESS... what were/are the angels that did NOT sin? Uh, the word is 'lawFUL'.
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:>Rom 5:15
For if the many died by the trespass of the one man,
Adam broke the law, his sin was a tresspass. Adam was the first being created by God with law.
Rom 4:15
...law brings wrath.
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Hmmmmm... Adam was the first being created by God with law. I find that interesting. Tell me, who sinned first... Adam? Or Satan? Adam was TOLD not to eat from the Tree of Knowledge. What was Satan TOLD, that WE know of... that rendered HIM to be called a 'manslayer' and 'the FATHER of the lie'? Was deceiving Eve wrong? By what 'law'? Was leading Adam into his death and that of all earthling man wrong? By what 'law'? If Adam was the first being created by God 'under law'... why was the SERPENT condemned? What 'law' was he 'under', so that he should be cursed eternally?
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That means ALL law. Even Adam's teensie law.
Once the law of the tree was in place, the wrath of God was imminent as Adam WAS GOING TO SIN and God knew it. That's what the law was for...to be broken.
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Again, you are in error. For all that is here... came out of what is there. And if there is law HERE... there most CERTAINLY is law there. For 'there'... existed FIRST. What exists HERE, is, in fact, a REFLECTION of that which was in existence LONG before us. JAH didn't HAVE to write down the law for spirit beings; they KNEW what it was... just as, in truth, most of US know what is 'lawful' and what is 'lawless'. However, quite apparently, not ALL of us can read 'the writing on the wal... uh, heart', and therefore, must SEE it written in STONE... or ink. And that is simply because... such ones walk by SIGHT... and not by spirit and faith.
Ecclesiastes 1:8-10
Ecclesiastes 3:15
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Again, your quote of my quote and your response:
For violating what 'law' was the serpent, Satan, cursed?
Lawlessness, Satan was cursed for anarchy and lawlessness. He was in the Garden of Eden, someplace he had no business in being. He thumbs his nose at the God of order, and brings disorder and chaos.
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And again, I ask you if Satan was CREATED in lawlessness? You may wish to review Ezekiel 28:15 before you answer. According to that scripture, it says he was FAULTLESS... therefore, PERFECT... therefore SINLESS... and therefore lawFUL.
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quote:
What 'bad' did God already KNOW... in order that if Adam and Eve ate from the Tree of Knowledge... they would become LIKE God?
God came to KNOW the resistor himself. God came to KNOW "bad/evil" for the first time from eternity. Bad, anarchy and chaos was CREATED by Satan, and became KNOWN to God and all in the heavenly realm, by Satan brining it into existence. Adam and Eve then came to KNOW Satan as God came KNOW Satan.
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Really. Was there no enmity BEFORE Adam's sin? Was there no 'division'? Indeed, there was, for JAH Himself PUT a division between the Light (John 8:12) and the Darkness (1 John 2:11; 2 Corinthians 4:4).
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quote:
Indeed, AS I STATED TO YOU... there was no WRITTEN law, but there WAS... and still IS... 'oral' law. Adam and Eve were given an ORAL law, were they not?
There is only ONE kind of law. It is oral. It is written down when the law becomes so complex (Mosaic Law) that it could not be remembered. Adams first law was a mere single statement. Oral. That's all that was needed. Before Adam's first law, NO LAW. Love needs no law, and that's all there was before Satan. LOVE and order.
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Order... dear one... IS 'law'.
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quote
If there was no 'law', and the only 'law' was the WRITTEN law, how then could Joseph consider havin relations with Potiphar's wife a 'sin against God'? Was there a law setting forth 'sin'?
Jesus answered your question a long time ago ORALLY:
Matt 19:4-6
4 "Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' 5 and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? 6 So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate."
Joseph would have violated the above. He knew that action as "sin" as it very well was, as defined from the beginning. Joseph would have violated God's "one flesh" arrangement. The second oral law from God.
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First, you are mixing two issues... marriage to one mate... and adultery. If the issue was one mate, then indeed, Joseph's FATHER, Jacob... who had FOUR wives... had 'transgressed law'... yes? But, he was neither judged nor condemned, was he? The ISSUE was that Potiphar had held NOTHING from Joseph... EXCEPT his wife... and for Joseph to take her would NOT have been only adultery... but COVETOUSNESS. Yet, where was the law against 'coveting' your neighbor's wife? Indeed, where was the law against adultery? It has not yet been written, yes? But Joseph KNEW it. Why was Jacob not guilty of adultery? Because ADULTERY... is having relations with a MARRIED woman. The women Jacob married and had relations with, belonged to no other.
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quote:
What 'law' did Cain break in killing Abel?
Whatever God says is right and wrong becomes law:
Gen 4:7
But if you do not do what is right, sin is crouching at your door; it desires to have you, but you must master it."
Cain was told by God his evil intentions were sin BEFORE he did it. He broke the above law to "do what is right" and to "master" his sinful thought.
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Indeed, Cain had ALREADY committed sin... in his heart, yes? As James stated:
"Then the DESIRE, when it becomes FERTILE, gives BIRTH
... to SIN. (But the ACT has not yet been committed,
because he goes ON to say...); in turn, SIN, when it has
been ACCOMPLISHED, brings forth death."
What was Cain's initial 'sin'? His ANGER. There was and is 'law' against anger. Yet, Cain had not yet MURDERED. But Cain was DISCIPLINED for his sin of ANGER prior to his action, because his sacrifices WERE NOT ACCEPTABLE. If Cain was 'sinless' until he murdered Abel, JAH would have had NO reason to reject his offerings. Cain was ALREADY sinning... in his heart... which rendered him unclean ON THE INSIDE... which sin JAH saw... and warned him of the 'fruit' of that sin. Cain did not listen... IN HIS HEART... and carried out the FRUIT of that sin. He 'accomplished' his anger, and by relation his TECHNICAL murder of his brother, by killing his brother... LITERALLY.
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The rest of your post is confusing at best...
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Yes, I understand, for the saying is true:
"For whom among men knows the thing of a man
except the SPIRIT of man that is in him? So,
too, no one has come to know the SPIRIT of God.
Now, WE... RECEIVED... NOT the spirit of the
world... but the spirit... WHICH IS FROM GOD,
that WE might know the things that have been
kindly given US... by God. These things WE
also speak, NOT with words taught by HUMAN
wisdom, but with those taught by THE SPIRIT,
as WE combine SPIRITUAL... with SPIRITUAL.
"BUT... a PHYSICAL man does not RECEIVE the
things of the spirit of God, FOR THEY ARE
FOOLISHNESS TO HIM; and he CANNOT get to
know them... because... THEY ARE EXAMINED
SPIRITUALLY. However... the SPIRITUAL man
examines indeed ALL things, but he himself
is not examined BY ANY MAN.
"For 'who has come to know the mind of JAH,
that he may instruct Him?' BUT... we DO
have... the mind of Christ."
Please know that my use of caps is not screaming or shouting, but purely emphasis as I do not know how to use html for purposes of bolding/italics on this Board. I understand WHY you don't see what I see... and hear what I hear, 'Pom. But, as I have said to you at least once before, it does not have to be that way. You can ALWAYS follow the admonition of Revelation 3:17, 18 and 22:17.
BTW, my Lord has directed me to inform you that in that realm, there are 'governments and rulerships and principalities'... and they ALL exist by and under LAW. It is for transgressing law in THAT realm, which included conduct in THIS one... that Satan and HIS angels battled, lost, and were 'cast out'. It is for transgression of law in THAT realm, that the angels that 'sinned'... are confined in Tartarus. It is for transgression of law in THAT realm, that the PIT of the Abyss exists, to all those SPIRITS... who sin. If there was not law there... there would have been no 'transgression of law' there. There could NOT have been.
Ephesians 6:12 (may I suggest you look this one up in the Greek also?)
I bid you peace... and remain,
YOUR servant and a slave of Christ,
SJ