I'll bite lovelylil, though I am not a Bible Student.
As we know the NWT adds an "a" to say "and the Word was (a) god, when there is no support for this in the ancient Greek manuscripts. In Charles Russells' study of the scripture books, he also adds an (a) when translating John 1:1. Isn't this tampering with the scriptures?
Fair enough LL. An anarthrous noun, what the theos is in John 1:1c, can be translated one of four ways.
- It can be translated as "God."
- As as "a god."
- As "the God."
- Or finally, in some qualitative way, such as "divine."
Any of the three are possible and depend entirely on which of the three makes the most sense in the context. The problem with both "God," and "the God" is that they make the clause read just the opposite of what the Greek Grammar indicates. That is why grammarians had to invent Colwell's rule to justify using option number one.
When I first studied Ancient Greek, I used a programmed primer written by an episcopalian scholar, Dr. John H. Werner, hardly an anti-trinitarian. Dr. Werner included John 1:1 among the pieces in his translation exercises to illustrate some of the nuances of the use of the definite article in ancient Greek. He made it quite clear to the student that Greek Grammar did not in any way imply in that passage that the "word" and God were in any way the same personage, the meaning implied when one translates the last clause as "and the word was God." So options numbers one and three are eliminated out of hand. That leaves options numbers two and four are what we are left with. Unfortunately there is nothing in the text of the verse to definitively guide us as to which option to use. So of necessity one ends up falling back on one's theology as a guide.
Ironically, after going to great pains to point out that the grammar didn't support the the use of the English "and the word was God" to his students, Dr. Werner made it clear that that particular translation was the accepted form for rendering the verse in the scholarly community. He just simply cautioned to student to be aware of what the Greek really meant. That was my introduction to the fact that the scholarly community, despite all of its publicly trashing the NWT rendering of that verse, knew for a fact that the NWT rendering had a better basis than the standard. Some translators, because the first option is actually misleading, use the fourth option.
There is another positive proof for the second or third options, the Sahidic Coptic translation, which goes back to the earliest times of the Christian era. Coptic does have the indefinite article and both the Sahidic and Boharic Coptic Translations use it in John 1:1. You will find a discussion of it at http://www.jehovahs-witness.com/10/145795/1.ashx. Even Leolaia participated in that one. In short, the consensus seems to be that the Coptic equally supports options two or four. just as the grammatical use or non use of the definite article in Greek does.
Forsher