Fisherman:
In other words:
37For just as the days of Noah were, so the presence of the Son of man will be.38For as they were in those days BEFORE the Flood...
You seem to be attempting to associate the 'flood' in the analogy with the 'tribulation'. If that is your aim, you are plainly wrong. The events described are explicitly described as being after the tribulation, and the 'flood' as used there is analogous to the 'gathering (or what some call the 'rapture') of the chosen ones' who have already been through the 'tribulation' (which would be 'cut short on their account'). The order of the purported events in Matthew 24:29-42 is quite clear. Matthew 24:40-41 in particular confirms that the 'presence' is not some protracted period incorporating events leading up to the tribulation, or the tribulation itself. The period leading up to the presence is directly analogous to the period leading up to the flood, and the 'presence' is analogous to the unexpected arrival of the 'flood' itself.
But on the day that Lot went out of Sodʹom, it rained
fire and sulfur from heaven and destroyed them all. 30 It will be the
same on that day when the Son of man is REVEALED.
The word rendered 'revealed' is not linguistically associated with 'parousia' at all. However, in context, the verse reflects the 'sign of Jesus' presence' that Matthew explicitly describes as appearing after the tribulation.