‘scholar’:
If Daniel was not a prophet and Daniel was simply a historical account of Jewish oppression of the 2nd century then why did Jesus refer to Daniel as a prophet and make reference to a future fulfilment as prophecy pertaining to Jerusalem?
There’s no evidence Jesus said anything of the sort. Words attributed to Jesus in the anonymous ‘gospels’ written decades after his death are unverifiable, and in any case is a fallacious appeal to authority. Aside from that, those works mention Daniel because the destruction of Jerusalem by the Babylonians is used as an allegory for the destruction by the Romans, just as it was used as an allegory in Daniel for Syrian oppression.