‘scholar’:
How can you be definite that a definite or precise date such as 607 BCE is wrong when you cannot offer up any other precise alternative?
Argument from ignorance. Even if the exact year were not known it doesn’t mean that whatever nonsense is offered instead must be correct.
But the exact year is known anyway. It was 587 BCE. No study of the subject in the last 60 years has offered any basis for 586 BCE as the correct year and various studies have specified 587 BCE as the correct year. The fact that some sources simply repeat Thiele’s dating from the 1940s (based on Ussher’s even earlier work) is irrelevant misdirection.