I don't know if following has been already touched.
Because "slave" appeared in 1919, then all predictions, speculations , doctrines, before that year
were clearly NOT "food at proper time".
But C T Russell pointed to 1914 as "end of gentle time", starting from late XIX century, a long before 1919.
So , where does "1914" comes from , being clearly not ascribable to "food from slave class" ?
Why "1914" is still a valid eschatological date, if has been defined long time before "slave class" appointment ?