Ginny,
:Dunsscot:
quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I think that the knowledge of A foreign language or several such tongues most certainly signals some type of linguistic intelligence.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
You're very funny. You say that knowledge of one or more foreign languages most certainly signals some type of linguistic intelligence. "Some type of linguistic intelligence" could mean anything--average, below average, or above average linguistic intelligence.:
Please allow me to clarify and tweak my comments above. They were admittedly vague. When I used the word "knowledge," I had a high level of proficiency in mind as well as the effort involved in learning the language. I might also add that one's situation in life must also be taken into consideration. Has the student passed the critical learning period when he or she acquires another language? Is he or she learning a foreign language that is dead? The student then has no culture to immerse himself or herself in directly. In your terms, I am talking about people who are above average when it comes to speaking or reading other languages.
:I agree that there are people who grasp foreign languages quite easily. I don't, however, judge a person's linguistic intelligence by how many languages he knows. Take for example our colleagues in Norway. Besides knowing several dialects of Norwegian, Kent, Jan, and Norm also speak Swedish, Danish, German, and English. Do they have higher levels of linguistic intelligence than you, me, or Jayhawk? Or have the exposure and schooling factors come into play?:
I do not know if Kent or Jan possess more linguistic intelligence than you, me or Jayhawk. But I can say that I have witnessed both sides of the coin. Some people have to be given a 'C' and shuffled through Latin 101/102. Others end up taking Greek 3 or 4 times and then finally give up. Some can barely learn the alphabet of the Hebrew or Arabic language. Others, however, just grasp these languages and become R-3s on the reading proficiency scale. I think my friend Rolf Furuli (University of Oslo) is quite intelligent when it comes to languages. I also know professors who can carry on conversations (fluently) in Latin, Greek, Hebrew, German, French, Japanese, and so on. Most individuals, even if they were exposed to these cultures and had the requisite schooling still could not accomplish this task. I have even heard of students who spent all semester trying to learn how to conjugate a French verb. They go home frustrated and in tears almost. It seems that some people more easily learn languages than others. They grasp syntax, morphology, phonology and grammar. I think these individuals have a unique type of intelligence.
:Let's suppose a diplomat speaks several foreign languages. He is not especially good with foreign languages, but worked very hard to master them to further his career. Does his knowing one or more foreign languages clearly signal a higher linguistic intelligence?:
What if he is fluent in one or more languages or can actually teach three or four languages?
:I hope you understand my point. Knowledge of one or more foreign languages is not in itself a clear signal of higher linguistic intelligence.:
I agree. My comments pertain to ease of acquisition, fluency and proficiency as well as the ability to acquire foreign languages after one passes the critical language period.
:As for S.A.T. and I.Q. scores, neither do I put a lot of stock in them. I mentioned them only because it seemed to me that you have been strutting around the board like a banty rooster, displaying your proficiency in Latin like a bright red cockscomb, while making snide remarks about another poster's level of education. If you consider academic accomplishments a measure of a person's intelligence, I figured we could save some time and find out who is big dawg. (Please excuse the mixed animal metaphors. ):
AF probably had a better education than I did. He certainly went to a prestigious school. Moreover, while I chided him about Latin and you fail to see that it is a male thing and an AF/Duns thing, I have not simply "strutted around" because I "know" Latin. Would you like to go toe to toe in Greek or Hebrew? :-) How about philosophy or theology? I am also now working on my German proficiency. Yes, I think I do possess linguistic intelligence. Especially when it comes to foreign languages. I also think I possess a high degree of conceptual intelligence. Duns is an INTP.
Academic accomplishments do not mean that much to me either. Education, something that is not directly tied to scores and grades (IMHO), is what counts in my book. A number of people have taken Latin courses. How many know how the language functions internally? How many know about linguistic principles in general? I would be willing to put my education against your education any day. I have acquired more knowledge about different fields up to this point in my life than you may ever acquire in your lifetime. So there, there! :-)
:So you're more knowledgeable in Latin than AlanF--whoooeeee! As it says in the Desiderata, "If you compare yourself with others, you may become vain and bitter; for always there will be greater and lesser persons than yourself." Or as Will Rogers puts it, "Everybody is ignorant, only on different subjects.":
I must agree with your quote from Will Rogers.
:You're O so generous, Dunsscot. Anastrophe wasn't listed in my Rhetorical Handbook, so I looked up both terms online. Here are the results:
:quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Latin Definitions
hyperbaton
departure from normal word order; the separation of companion words to achieve a dramatic effect or a particular sound
This is something up with which I will not put.
anastrophe
The inversion of normal word order:
That is something up with which I will not put.:
Your answer is not wrong, Ginny. I was simply trying to be precise. Anastrophe is one example of hyperbaton. But hysteron proteron is another. We could look at matters this way: Hyperbaton is the superordinate, while anastrophe is a hyponym that we epistemically and categorically subsume under the said superordinate. To be precise, hyperbaton takes in other rhetorical devices and it is done for rhetorical effect. One may anastrophize a prepositional phrase and not do it strictly for effect. So while the source you cite is not wrong, it is also not specific as it should be.
Duns the Scot
"Nobody is taller than himself or herself."