pizzahut2023 : For example, in J29 (The Original Aramaic New Testament in Plain English (An American Translation of the Aramaic New Testament), by Glenn David Bauscher, Seventh Edition, Australia, 2012)
In Luke 2:11 it says: "For today, the Savior has been born to you, who is THE LORD JEHOVAH the Messiah, in the city of David."
Thanks for all the work you have put into this, pizzahut2023. J29 is without doubt an interesting translation but shows a strong trinitarian bias. In the introduction the translator writes :
Divine Names and titles are generally translated, not transliterated like human names or place names. “Jehovah” is used to translate the Aramaic “MarYah” , which is The Aramaic for The Hebrew -“Yahweh”, and always refers to The Deity. This Name, very interestingly, is applied to Yeshua (Jesus) in the Peshitta New Testament at least 32 times! “MarYah” literally means “LORD JEHOVAH”. It is first applied to the infant Jesus in Luke 2:11. The last reference is in Rev. 22.20.
mryh (maryah) is an Aramaic word meaning 'Lord' and was used in the Syrian royal court long before Christianity. When the New Testament was translated into Syriac, a distinction was made to show whether it referred to human lords or was a euphemism for Jehovah by either spelling it out in full (maryah) or abbreviating it (mary, marah or mar). However, although maryah is used as a euphemism for Jehovah, it is also used to mean 'Lord' in a formal or respectful sense.
When it is used to refer to Jesus (Matthew 22:43,45; Luke 2:11; John 8:11; Acts 2:36,38; 9:10,27; 18:25; Romans 14:9,14; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 11:27,29; 12:3; Ephesians 4:5; Philippians 2:11; James 5:7,8; 1 Peter 2:3; 3:15; Revelation 22:20) it is never used as a name but as a title (Lord).
How do you tell what is meant? Consider the context and whether it is quoting from or alluding to the Old Testament where God's name is used.
Consider, for example, Matthew 22:43-45 :
He said to them, "And how did David by The Spirit call him maryah, for he said: 'maryah said to my Lord, Sit at my right hand until I place your enemies under your feet'? If therefore David called him maryah, how is he his son?"
Quite clearly, if you repace maryah with "LORD JEHOVAH" in every instance, as is done in this translation, it makes a nonsense of the passage.