FedUpJW : He was therefore the husband of TWO WIVES, although not at the same time.
That is not an unreasonable understanding of Paul's words that an overseer should be "a husband of one wife" (1 Tim.3:2; Titus 1:6). It hardly refers to polygamy as that is forbidden to all. Further, polygamy was not practiced by the Romans or Greeks at that time.
What else could it mean? While divorce and remarriage was allowed when adultery was involved, this was not ideal as Jesus said "Let no man divide what God has put together.”