AuldSoul, belated but regarding this statement:
I see no justification in the Bible for anyone who is unbaptized to consider themselves qualified to preach.
Conversion of the first Gentiles:
When Peter arrived, Cornelius, in the presence of "his relatives and intimate friends," (Acts 10:24) said to the apostle: "We are all present before God to hear all the things you have been commanded by Jehovah to say." (Acts 10:44, 45) "While Peter was yet speaking...the holy spirit fell upon all those hearing the word." Thus this group of which Cornelius is named as the most notable became the first uncircumcised Gentiles or non-Jews to receive "the free gift of the holy spirit." (Acts 10:44, 45) Water baptism immediately followed.
Granted, when the holy spirit fell upon them, they were witnessing to others who just received the holy spirit or Christians and did so for a brief time. Nonetheless, they were not yet baptized and "the faithful ones that had come with Peter...were amazed, because the free gift of the holy spirit was being poured out."
This obviously does not refute the unscriptural mandates for water baptism. However, the complete account does show a few points. Cornelius must have been talking/preaching to his friends about his supernatural experience (Acts 10:30) and convinced them to be present when Peter arrived. Then when Peter arrived Cornelius asked for more knowledge. (Acts 10:33)
I am glad I came across this thread; we will be covering this chapter soon in the bookstudy.
bczar