I am having great trouble with distinguishing between where the NWT refers to Jehovah in the NT and where it should really read Lord meaning, not God, but the Lord; Jesus. The problem comes to light in a passage quoted in this weeks Watchtower study.
The passage in question was Romans 14:8, though you really have to read verse 9 as well to a better flavour of what Paul was talking about.
In the NWT, the passage reads;
8. for both if we live, we live to Jehovah, and if we die, we die to Jehovah. Therefore both if we live and if we die, we belong to Jehovah. 9. For to this end Christ died and came to life again, that he might be Lord over both the dead and the living.
Other translations, which do not attempt to substitute Gods name, render the passage along the lines of;
8. For whether we live, we live unto the Lord; or whether we die, we die unto the Lord: whether we live therefore, or die, we are the Lord's.
9. For to this end Christ died and lived again, that he might be Lord of both the dead and the living. (NIV)
Hopefully, you can see my problem. I f I just consult, either the Emphatic Diaglott or The Kingdom Interlinear, the original Greek is simply Kyrios, Lord. How can I tell when the writer is referring to God and when he is referring to Christ? I can see problems here with those who believe in the trinity, it would be easy to say God and Christ are one, so it doesnt matter!
I have done a search on the site and found some interesting threads on the substitution of Jehovah for Lord in the NWT, e.g. one between Joseph-Stephen Bonnano and a professor Jason BeDuh, but they dont really address my more simple question of how can I tell who is being spoken about.
Edited by - eyeslice on 22 December 2002 13:52:27