Hi, VM73
Just read this sentence:
Further, if guilt resulted only if blood was from a creature killed by man, then Deuteronomy 14:21 and Exodus 22:31 would not have forbidden Israelites to eat unbled flesh from animals that were not killed by men.
Actually, if "guilt resulted only if blood was from a creature killed by man," then Deuteronomy 14:21 and Exodus 22:31 would have forbidden Israelites to eat that flesh anyway, because of the ceremonial impurity of corpses.
At the core of the article is a complete confusion between the prohibition against blood and the ceremonial impurity of corpses. The quoted passages of Deuteronomy 14:21, Leviticus 17:15, Exodus 22:31 and Leviticus 5:2 are all about the impurity of corpses.
How about this:
Now let us carefully examine Leviticus 17:10. It says that no “man of the house of Israel or some alien resident” should eat blood. Was that because the animal had been killed by a human and so the blood had to be returned to God? To claim such is to read into the verse more than it says.
The next verse, Leviticus 17:11 says that the blood has been put on the altar. Is it "reading into the verse more than it says" to assume that Israelites couldn't pour blood from a live animal on the altar?
I find it incredible that the author can tell others that they read into verses more that they say, and fail to see how much he does it himself, when reading the blood prohibition into verses that merely declare corpses unclean.
Look at the general tone of the article, too. Scornful, aggressive. The way it calls to obedience. I met its author after a lot of insistence, and spent 30 minutes respectfuly directing his attention to the problem. He was just as nervous as when writing his article, and kept looking at his watch. He then warned me against falling into apostasy.
That's at least something he was right about.