It is disingenuous to say that the city was destroyed because of lack of hospitality.
Why?
If the explanation for the destruction of Sodom, namely its sin or lack of righteousness, is explained in the Bible, how is it disingenuous to hold to that view?
Perhaps we struggle in our post-Watchtower pit of confusion to see that homosexuality might not be the ire-inducing crime the Governing Body (and mainstream, "orthodox", evangelicals) says it is. My understanding of Jesus is that he was always more concerned about social justice than sexual sin. His righteousness reflected that of the Father, therefore the Father is angered and upset by the poor and needy being ignored or abused. And that was what was going on in Sodom.