I don't know whether anyone here has encountered a program called e-Sword (with the hyphen in it like that). It is Bible study software that lets you install literally dozens of different translations of the Bible to compare, plus dictionaries, maps, and commentaries (including historic commentaries like the ones Ray Franz describes in CoC). You can install both modern and historic translations, plus versions of the original Greek and Hebrew manuscripts as well as the Latin Vulgate and Greek Septuagint translations. I recently installed it and was checking out favorite verses in different translations.
One of the translations you can get for e-Sword is NWT, which I have mostly because it's the Bible version that I'm most familiar with. When looking at the NWT text of Ecclesiastes 1:2, I was struck by two things: one, that the text wasn't even close to what I was used to the NWT saying, and, two, that it was a very, very good translation of the original Hebrew (I was raised Jewish and can read Hebrew). This really startled me and made me wonder if the NWT had been revised. No luck; a little Googling revealed to me that what I was actually looking at was a copy of the Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB) translation rather than the NWT.
A little hunting around and I found a real copy of the NWT for e-Sword. What I had previously installed had been mislabelled. So, if you've got a copy of e-Sword, double check and make sure that your NWT really is the NWT. The real one is 6.87 Mb whereas the mislabelled HCSB is 12.2 Mb.
But this all raises some interesting (to me, anyway) questions about the NWT, as well as a few things that have been bugging me since back when I was an active Witness. The first chapter of Ecclesiastes is one of the first things that I look at in Bible translations that I haven't encountered before, as I can immediately tell whether the translators are working from the original manuscripts or are simply paraphrasing older translations.
If the NWT is based on the original manuscripts, why does Ecclesiastes 1:2 use the word "vanity" to mean "useless" or "meaningless"? The only way that such a rendering would make sense is if one were trying to imitate the Roman Catholic Latin Vulgate text, a medieval translation of scripture that the KJV is based on. If you've got a Bible where the first chapter of Ecclesiastes uses the word "vanity", it is not working from the original manuscripts--it is either translating the Vulgate or attempting to revise the KJV. The word "vanity" does not mean "useless" in modern English, but it is similar to the Latin word used in the Vulgate ("Vanitas vanitatum dixit Ecclesiastes, vanitas vanitatum, omnia vanitas").
Bibles that translate the original Hebrew word "hebel" correctly, as "useless", "meaningless", or something similar, include the TEV, NJB, NIV, CEV, and HCSB, as noted. Bibles that use the word "vanity" (apparently in an effort to imitate the Vulgate but at the expense of English meaning) include the KJV, ASV, RSV, and NWT, only the last of which claims to be based on the oldest available manuscripts (the others either being the KJV or revisions of it).
Why would the Society translate the word this way, obviously in imitation of the Vulgate (which they condemn), when copies of the original Hebrew text are readily available at any Christian or Jewish book store (and almost certainly in the Bethel libraries)? My guess is that they just based their "translation" on a translation that relied on the Vulgate without realizing that doing so caused them to show their hand. The problem is that they were obviously just comparing and revising earlier English translations rather than making a new translation based on the oldest manuscripts available, while claiming to be producing something totally new and based only on the oldest manuscripts.
This has been bothering me for a LONG time.
If my incredibly dry and boring rambling about Biblical semantics hasn't put you to sleep (or at least caused you to leave the page) yet, this gives me an opportunity to bring up a few other questions about the NWT that have been bouncing around in my head. In putting together a new translation of the scriptures, and claiming to be guided by Jehovah God in doing so, isn't it remarkable that the Society arrived at the exact same 66 books as being "inspired" that Babylon the Great did centuries ago? Not even one of the New Testament apocryphal books was actually inspired? Not even one of the books that Babylon the Great deemed worthy of inclusion in the canon was not actually so?
Babylon the Great was exactly right in their blind guesses regarding the authorship of each and every one of the books of the Bible? Not even one of those books was actually written by someone else? (I could write essays on why Solomon almost certainly wasn't the author of Ecclesiastes, nor were any of the Gospels likely written by their namesakes.)
Not even one of the Old Testament apocryphal books was actually inspired and worthy of inclusion? Martin Luther wasn't wrong about even one of them? Luther's removal of the Deuterocanonical books from the Bible would have presented an excellent opportunity for the Society to argue that things were being removed and "covered up" by Christendom, but instead they determined that Luther's actions were 100% correct.
How strange that these humans working without divine assistance in compiling the canon centuries ago managed to still get every one of their guesses right. That is what the composition of the NWT would have us believe, anyhow.
I'll try to wrap things up with the one that has been bugging me the most. The more that I think about it, the more that it becomes obvious to me that the use of the word "Jehovah" as a translation of the Tetragrammaton (I'm not even going to start on its use in the New Testament) is no more appropriate than the use of the word "LORD" in its place. Even the Society admits that "Jehovah" is not a particularly accurate rendering of the Tetragrammaton. (There is no letter J in Hebrew, Greek, or even Latin; the word is a corruption based on mideval misunderstandings of Hebrew.) Whether you use the word "LORD" in place of the Tetragrammaton or the word "Jehovah" in place of it, you are hiding and covering up the original word, the actual name of God, "YHWH", or possibly "Yahweh".
If it is so vitally important to use the Divine Name, if one cannot possibly know God without knowing the Divine Name or expect answer to prayer without including it, wouldn't "YHWH" or "Yahweh" be what you would HAVE to use? Doesn't using the word "Jehovah" cover it up and remove the actual divine name just as much as "LORD" or "father" or any other name or title would?
Just some things that have been bugging me. Thanks for letting me get it out, and thanks so much for reading such a long and rambling post.
Peace,
Heather.