One of the things that always caught my attention was the Jewish Priests use of the term Rabbi when addressing Jesus on occasion. This is in the NWT not in others. The link shows the use is erroneous as the term wasn't used until 200 CE and was first mentioned in the Jewish Mishna (not the Bible). I bring this up because supposedly (I'm not exactly sure) a persson seeking to be a Rabbi must be married as it would be difficult, not to mention improper to give couself to a married couple if you had no experience in marriage.
If you look at the Apocryplah writings, especially the Gospel of Mar Magdalene it seems that Mary Magdalene was Jesus' wife. It mentions Jesus kissing Mary on the mouth (in several verses) and that Peter was especially jealous of her. It also mentions that Mary (not Peter) was appointed by Jesus to succeed him as leader of the movement after his death. One of the clues as to whether Mary was married (or at least a widow) is that she roamed around freely with the disciples. Women just didn't do this in ancient Israel UNLESS they had money or a man to provide for them since women weren't allowed to hold down secular jobs. This can bee seen by the widow who's son died (whom Jesus raised). Withot a son to provide for her she would be destitute since she also had no husband. This is why sons were valued more than daughters because fo them being able to provide materially.
Mary Magdalene traveled around wuite extensively with Jesus and no mention was ever made of a husband. To modern readers we woulodn't think twice about it, but to someone in those times it would be something very unusual for a single woman with seemingly no income to spend large amounts of time in Jesus' company. Hence the RCC labeling her as a prostitute to take away some of her glory and to put the focus on Peter.
So the things the Bible doesn't say, when considered with historical background does seem to support the case for Mary Magdalene being the wife of Jesus. Then again we really don't know.