MercyBrew:
Thanks for your words of paragraph 1 from your last post.
You mention so many points in your last two posts that it is not easy for me to pick just one to address. Even though we may disagree on the subject of the extent of Jesus' Godhood, your calm tone is appreciated in the exchange.
You mentioned that the fact that Jesus should be ‘honored’ just as the Father is honored is indicative of Jesus being the equal to God. (John 5.23) The way I see this is explained in my previous post in page 3 to jhine. This is not a matter of: The Father gets 50% of honor and the Son gets the other 50% to prove they are equal. To illustrate: If a King sends an envoy to represent him before the recipient, the King expects the envoy to be treated just as if he was the King in person. To disrespect the messenger is to dishonor the King himself. To honor the envoy is just as good as honoring the King himself. As Jesus said: ‘The one sent is lesser than the one doing the sending.’ The King is greater than the messenger, and Jesus was happy to report that his mission involved being "sent" by God. (Compare to Jesus' description in Heb. 3.1 of an "apostle".) Is this gibberish?
No, because Scripture overall subordinates Christ throughout as slimboyfat succinctly indicated in his post. The letter to the Philippians speaks of Christ being ‘exalted by God to a superior position.’ The author of the epistle writes that ‘God kindly gave Christ the name that is above every other name.’ (Phil. 2.9) Why so?
"So that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground--and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father." (vv. 10,11) Thus, whatever glory Jesus was to be honored with - had the ultimate purpose of further glorifying the Supreme God. It ends with God. No mention of "the Holy Ghost" receiving any glory in this text, nor is there any mention in John ch. 5 that "the Holy Ghost" should be honored just as the Father and Son is honored.
Another interesting tidbit is found in Philippians (2.9) where it says that ‘God exalted Christ to a superior position and kindly gave him the name above every other name.’ If Jesus was the equal of God, how could he be exalted "to a superior position" than the one he previously had? There is no higher position that God's. Logically, the One doing the exalting is superior to one being "exalted." And if that wasn't enough, the author of the letter states that God kindly gave him the name above every other name. The Greek word (echari'sato) there implies that the name was handed out as ‘a gift of grace,’ an act of kindness, from someone mighty to a lesser one. Whatever glory and might Jesus gained was all due to God's will. (Col. 1.19)
And finally, it is crucial to abide by Jesus' own words, and not by Plato's. Did Jesus at any time claim to be God? Can you mention ONE explicit verse from anywhere in the Bible where Jesus claims: "I am God"? You mention that the Jew's blasphemy response indicated that Jesus was God. The blasphemy charge itself could be brought by various actions. Even if the accusation of blasphemy was justified, more important by far is whether Jesus believed he was God. When pushed against a corner, Jesus only admitted being "God's Son," not God. (John 10.36)
Jesus did, however, ask Mary Magdalene to inform others that he was going back to God (incidentally the same God of the disciples). (John 20.17) He literally said: ‘I am ascending to...my God and your God." Any lengthy appeal to Jesus' Godhood must take into account Jesus' own admission.
Even Thomas confession at 20.28 must be viewed in light of Christ's statement in 20.17 and 20.31. Can long-winded trinitarian explanations (to use Cofty's words) be accommodated with Jesus' own statement at John 20.17? Do they agree with the exalted Christ's own declarations in Rev. 3.12 where he speaks of his Father as "my God" repeatedly? Is "the Holy Ghost" ever called out as "my God" by anyone anywhere? Why would Jesus speak so highly of his Father as "my God" but not even mention "the Holy Ghost" in equal share? Obviously, the purported "Christian" Trinity is just as weak as the multiple triads of the pagan nations. There is no equal strength or attention among the so called "three persons" of the "trinity."
Hence, what I would like to bring out here is exactly what Jesus instructed Mary Magdalene: "Go to your brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to...my God and your God.’"
This is what we should be preaching about. That Jesus had a God he worshipped, and his God is the One he instructed others to worship." (John 4.23) Is that instruction so difficult to carry out?
I suppose not as difficult as trying to explain Plato's trinity concept and how his ideas influenced "Christian" worship!
Nouveau
Dictionnaire
Universel:
“The Platonic trinity, itself merely a rearrangement of older
trinities dating back to earlier peoples, appears to be the rational
philosophic trinity of attributes that gave birth to the three
hypostases or divine persons taught by the Christian churches. . . .
This Greek philosopher’s [Plato, fourth century B.C.E.] conception
of the divine trinity . . . can be found in all the ancient
religions.” (Edited by M. Lachâtre, Vol. 2, 1467, Paris,
1865-1870).