Posts by Inkie

I'm pretty sure they mean that while "this global war is associated with," it is "Christ's presence" which is "now hear." At some point, "this global war" will become "associated with" "Christ presence." They're still wrong, but that's what I think they mean, not that Armageddon is "now hear."

--Inkie

8

Biblical question re: John 10: 1-7

by journey-on in

jw
friends

i find this scripture interesting, yet confusing.

aguest has referred to it many times.

(hopefully, you will respond to my question, shelby.).

Inkie

Well, in answer to your question, yes and no and yes.

What I mean is, in the first example (v. 1-5), Jesus is both the “shepherd” and the “doorkeeper” (who opens and closes the door) as is shown by the fact that the sheep listen to his voice. But verse 6 shows that the disciples did not understand what he was saying to them. (Does that surprise you?) It was the disciples who were dense, and did not comprehend what he was saying, not that the first explanation by Christ was inadequate or vague. The disciples often didn’t get what the Christ said. (No offense to the disciples.) He had to explain things to them many times. This is just a classic example of how Christ, changed what he said ever so slightly so that the disciples could get it. He repeated his explanation and yes, said it more clearly or easier for his disciples to get it the second time around. Odd? No, not really. Not when you truly consider the things going on here.

“Jesus is all three?” Yes.

In the first explanation Christ is the “shepherd” and the “doorkeeper.” As shepherd he opens the door, thus, he’s the doorkeeper too.

In the second explanation Christ changes the explanation so that the disciples get that he is the “door” through which the sheep go through.

So, yes, he’s all three. But remember, there are two explanations, one to clarify the previous one.

Like I said earlier, this kind of thing is not uncommon in everyday speech when trying to teach. It happens all the time. Ask any teacher.

--Inkie

8

Biblical question re: John 10: 1-7

by journey-on in

jw
friends

i find this scripture interesting, yet confusing.

aguest has referred to it many times.

(hopefully, you will respond to my question, shelby.).

Inkie

Journey-On:

John 10:6 answers your question actually. Jesus BEGAN a parable (v. 1-5) but the disciples didn't get it. So, he tried again, taking a slightly different take (v. 7) on it: "Therefore Jesus said again, etc. . . ."

We ourselves do this kind of thing often when speaking.

--Inkie

16

The Society tells us when Armageddon occurs--yeah right!

by Inkie in

jw
friends

the september 1, 2011, issue of the watchtower states, on page 10, the following about when armageddon will occur/take place:.

the term armageddon (har-magedon) .

refers to a unique war .

Inkie

The September 1, 2011, issue of The Watchtower states, on page 10, the following about “when” Armageddon will occur/take place:

“The term ‘Armageddon’ (‘Har-Magedon”) . . . refers to a unique war . . . in which ‘the kings of the entire inhabited earth’ are mobilized for a final battle with God. . . .

When will Armageddon take place? God’s Son plainly stated: ‘Concerning that day and hour nobody knows, neither the angels of the heavens nor the Son, but only the Father.’ (Matthew 24:36) Even so, in speaking about Armageddon, the Warrior-King Jesus Christ added this warning: ‘Look! I am coming as a thief.

. . . .

Thus, this global war is associated with Christ’s presence, which Bible prophecies show is now here.

Armageddon will destroy only the incorrigibly wicked, and there will be ‘a great crowd’ of survivors.” (Bold emphasis mine.)

WRONG!!! So sad. These people who write these articles just don’t get it. They MIX different biblical texts concerning different events and create a hodgepodge of doctrines to make them say what their doctrine is rather than what is true.

When Christ made the statement he did, recorded at Matthew 24:36, he was not speaking of Armageddon, he was speaking about “that day” of his return—which is not the same thing as Armageddon. It is AFTER he returns and gathers his own that they will rule with him for a thousand years. AFTER the thousand years, Satan is let loose from being abyssed and he (Satan) goes forth and misleads those then to the war of the great day of God the Almighty. Armageddon happens AFTER the thousand years—not before it. If Armageddon happened when the Master returns, before the thousand years, then Armageddon didn’t do what it was supposed to do considering that ANOTHER uprising occurs AFTER the thousand years. If Armageddon is going to destroy “only the incorrigibly wicked” when the Master returns before the thousand years begins, then it’s not the “final battle” the Society purports it to be as there’s going to be another uprising again after the thousand years has ended. What good is the first Armageddon? Are there going to be two Armageddons?

The Society’s writers are not all the bright.

Not only that, but the “great tribulation” from which a ‘great crowd comes out’ occurs BEFORE the Master returns because the Master is said to return “immediately after the tribulation.”

The “great tribulation” and “Armageddon” are different events entirely unrelated to each other and occur a minimum of a thousand years apart.

--Inkie

153

Curiosity/ Create the universe Stephen Hawking

by jam in

jw
friends

if you have not seen it, it,s on the discovery station.

tonite, 8:00 pm west coast, two parts..

Inkie

Caedes: You wrote:

“One of the questions was regarding protons popping in and out of existence, it sounds like the info in the show was correct, the static or 'real' protons do not blink in and out of existence. Thus the 'static' protons would remain static and real. According to quantum mechanics only virtual particle pairs pop in and out of existence, they cannot come 'from' somewhere or 'go' somewhere in this universe since that would break the laws of conservation of energy. It is not a question of not having the right instruments, it is a problem of the fundamental physical laws of the universe.

At least that is how I understand it and my understanding of physics is far from perfect.”

I was made to wonder, why is it that ‘static’ protons that remain static are considered real? Does not the evidence show that protons which “blink in and out of existence,” so to speak, are ALSOreal—just not static? I mean, the fact that some protons can be detected and/or seen to “blink in and out,” as shown in this program, give evidence that they are real? Now, one may wonder where “they go” when they ‘blink out’; however, even in their ‘blinking out,’ aren’t they real? Just because something isn’t “seen” doesn’t mean that it doesn’t exist or ceases to exist because we suddenly can’t see it, does it? Is that what the scientists and you are concluding?

Like you, I too am far far from perfect in my understanding of physics. The above are just questions that “blink in and out of existence” in my brain.

--Inkie

13

Heavenly Hope

by Quendi in

here are some questions i want to pose to our friends here.

does a person have to be baptized to go to heaven and if one must get baptized, how is this to be arranged and by whom?.

the reason i ask this is many here have professed their belief that they are part of the body of christ, should partake of the emblems whenever they celebrate the lord's supper, and will go to heaven after they die if they have been faithful.

Inkie

Quendi:

I write the following under the assumption that at some point you have been one of Jehovah’s Witnesses. (Please correct me if I err in this regard.) Not to be rude or disrespectful but, have you actually read the Bible, specifically the New Testament (Christian Greek Scriptures so-called)? The reason I ask you this question is because, all of your questions you ask here are pretty much answered in the reading of the NT. You have read the NT, yes? If you have done your own research, your own ‘searching the scriptures’ so to speak, you really don’t need to ask answers to your questions of any other human . You can read it for yourself and get the answers for yourself OR, better yet, you can go directly to the Lord and ask him. He himself will tell you also. Nonetheless . . . .

There have been a number of baptisms mentioned in the Bible. The last two that I remember are “John’s baptism” in symbol of repentance for one’s sins, and the other the “baptism by holy spirit.” You ask:

Does a person have to be baptized to go to heaven and if one must get baptized, how is this to be arranged and by whom?

Answer: Yes. It is arranged by Jah and His Christ. Christ is the one that pours out holy spirit on you and thus baptizes you.

The reason I ask this is many here have professed their belief that they are part of the Body of Christ,

This is also true, many have. Just remember too that Christ said to beware of false christs and false prophets.

should partake of the emblems whenever they celebrate the Lord's Supper,

All should partake of the emblems. You have that correct.

and will go to heaven after they die if they have been faithful.

“Christians (those who have been anointed/baptized with ‘holy spirit’) who die rest in ‘sleep’ waiting for their Lord’s return, which is when they will be resurrected. They do not go to heaven when they die.

Personally, while I believe myself to be a Christian,

I understand that you believe this, however, your statement begs the question: Have you received the free gift of the holy spirit? If not, then you cannot be what the name Christian literally means: “Anointed Person.”

I have no such beliefs about my destiny.

Which is why I think you may be a ‘disciple of Christ’ rather than a “Christian.”

I have not been "born again", do not entertain the hope of going to heaven after my death, and so do not celebrate the Lord's Supper.

No Christian has yet been “born again.” That event is still future. As for the other things just mentioned above, they give credence that you are not yet a Christian in the defined meaning of the name.

Now, if baptism is indeed necessary before one can be "anointed" with holy spirit and receive the heavenly calling, what baptism is valid?

See answer above.

For those who have left Jehovah's Witnesses and no longer have anything to do with the organization, how do they view their baptism as Witnesses? Is it valid?

It is not.

Those baptized before 1985 were baptized in "the name of the Father, Son, and holy spirit". Those immersed after that date were told that their baptism meant they had repented of their sins and were now prepared to follow the mandates laid down by "God's spirit-directed organization", something entirely different from what Jesus said.

That is correct.

So would baptism as one of Jehovah's Witnesses make a person eligible to be anointed,

Yes and No. Everyone is ‘eligible’; no one is ‘eligible.’ (That all depends upon what you mean by ‘eligible.’) Being anointed by holy spirit is a free gift bestowed on one by God and Christ.

or would another baptism be necessary?

Baptism by/of the holy spirit.

Who should baptize Christians?

God and Christ baptize you.

5

question about the memorial

by outsmartthesystem in

thus far i've read some very compelling arguments regarding the memorial/passover being on nisan 15 and not 14. but i do have a question.

why does numbers 28:16 seem to indicate plainly that the passover occured on the 14th?

surely i am missing something, no?

Inkie

WL: I am unable to access your paper because I get an error message when I click on your link to your paper.

5

question about the memorial

by outsmartthesystem in

thus far i've read some very compelling arguments regarding the memorial/passover being on nisan 15 and not 14. but i do have a question.

why does numbers 28:16 seem to indicate plainly that the passover occured on the 14th?

surely i am missing something, no?

Inkie

WontLeave: You must remember that the "evening" of any given day is the "beginning" of the day for Israel. Thus, "sundown" is the "beginning" of the day, as well as the "evening" of that day. The lamb was thus slaughtered in the "evening" at the "beginning" of the day, not the end of the day. Therefore, Passover began on Nisan 14, at the beginning/evening of that day, eaten through the night, until "morning." Just like Genesis reads: And evening and morning were the first day, etc., etc., etc.

60

To the Household of FSM, IPU, and Those Who Have Gone With ....

by OnTheWayOut in

jw
friends

i say to those ones, "congratulations.

" you have figured it out.. .

the above is a fusion between the void (empty set zero with a slash through it) symbol and a drawing of a unicorn.

Inkie

Quoting OTWO:

FSM or IPU could beat up Johashua Miscavah (spelling, so sorry) with one noodle or hoof tied behind their body (if they had one) .

Watersprout, no need to apologize for "his" spelling errors. After having read all of AGuest's post you'd think "he" would get the proper spelling simply by "repetition." Alas, sad. But . . . what does one really expect from a "G.E.D. Dummy"?

--Inkie