The parable of the rich man and someone called Lazarus was simply that - a parable, which Jesus used to drive home his point.
Why would Jesus base a parable on a (supposedly) false doctine? All of his other parables were based on events or something that was real and that the first century Jews would be familiar with. Everything from a mustard seed to a wedding feast, hidden treasures, fishing, lost sheep, money, virgins, homes built on sand or rock, etc. were all included whenever he gave them a parable but suddenly that doesn't apply to the parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus? Gimme a break.
As has been shown, there are plenty of scriptures that clearly show that the bible teaches that there is a life beyond this one. The only way you can get around that is by twisting the scriptures because you have a pre-conceived idea as to what you want it to say.
I didn't write Psalm 37:29 - "The righteous themselves will possess the earth, and they will reside forever upon it", but I believe it!
Once again, you're only seeing what you want to see. The preceding verses were written for the Israelites and are talking about how they were to be righteous; to 'depart from evil and do good'. It involved 'following the Laws of God' which naturally at that time, included the 10 Commandments---something that Witnesses believe is not binding on them today. If they followed this righteous life, they would "inherit the land" (Psalms 37:29) specifically, the land of Canaan which was vitally important to them at that time. These verses have nothing at all to do with the pre-conceived idea that all humans would remain forever upon the earth.