Your argument against the authenticity of the phrase "our Lord and God Jesus Christ" in Polycarp's Letter to the Philippians—and by extension, your broader point about potential interpolations in early Christian writings—requires a detailed response. You correctly note that the Greek manuscript evidence for Polycarp's letter is incomplete and relies on late Latin manuscripts for the latter part. However, this does not automatically render the inclusion of "our Lord and God Jesus Christ" invalid. Several points need consideration. Many ancient works have come down to us in fragmentary or late manuscripts. For instance, much of classical literature is known from manuscripts no earlier than the Middle Ages. This does not negate the authenticity of those works; rather, it underscores the care required in textual criticism. While there are variations in the Latin manuscripts regarding "et deum" ("and God"), the presence of this phrase in four of the nine manuscripts is significant. Variations in wording are a common feature of manuscript traditions and must be weighed carefully, not dismissed outright. The phrase "our Lord and God Jesus Christ" aligns with the theological language of Polycarp's time. The early Christian community frequently referred to Jesus in terms that affirmed His divinity (e.g., John 20:28, Ignatius of Antioch).
You raise valid concerns about the possibility of interpolations in early Christian writings, citing Rufinus and examples from other Church Fathers. However, while Rufinus admits to "harmonizing" Origen's works with orthodox theology, this was not a systematic effort to alter all early Christian texts. The cases you cite (e.g., Clement, Dionysius of Alexandria) are specific examples, not evidence of widespread fabrication. Differences in manuscript traditions are normal, but they do not imply deliberate falsification. Textual criticism aims to identify the most likely original reading based on internal and external evidence. Polycarp was a disciple of the Apostle John and a contemporary of Ignatius of Antioch, whose writings unambiguously affirm Jesus' divinity (e.g., Ignatius’ letter to the Ephesians: "our God, Jesus Christ"). The phrase "our Lord and God Jesus Christ" fits the theological framework of Polycarp’s milieu, making interpolation less likely.
The expression "our Lord and God Jesus Christ" is consistent with early Christian theology. Thomas explicitly addresses Jesus as "My Lord and my God" (Ho Kyrios mou kai ho Theos mou). This confession of Jesus' divinity became a cornerstone of early Christian belief. Writing just decades before Polycarp, Ignatius repeatedly refers to Jesus as God (e.g., To the Romans 3:3: "our God, Jesus Christ"). The idea of Jesus' divinity was not a late development but an integral part of early Christian theology. As a disciple of the Apostle John, Polycarp's theology would naturally reflect Johannine Christology, which strongly emphasizes Jesus' divine nature (e.g., John 1:1, 10:30).
Michael Holmes' personal correspondence, where he suggests "et deum" may be a later addition, reflects the ongoing nature of textual criticism. However, textual criticism often involves differing opinions. Holmes' later reconsideration does not constitute definitive proof against the phrase's authenticity. Other scholars, such as J.B. Lightfoot, have defended the phrase. The broader context of Polycarp's writings emphasizes Christ's exalted status. Even if "et deum" were omitted, the remaining text still supports a high Christology consistent with early Christian belief.
Your broader assertion that no first-century Christian, including Paul, believed in a Trinity is not supported by the evidence. Paul refers to Jesus in divine terms (e.g., Philippians 2:6-11, Colossians 1:15-20, Titus 2:13). While Paul does not use the term "Trinity," his writings provide the foundation for later Trinitarian doctrine. The New Testament contains numerous references to the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in ways that suggest a unified divine nature (e.g., Matthew 28:19, 2 Corinthians 13:14). The writings of Ignatius, Justin Martyr, and others demonstrate that belief in Jesus' divinity and the Triune nature of God was firmly established in the early church.
In the New Testament, Jesus Christ is referred to as κύριος (Lord) and θεός (God) in numerous instances, but according to Arians these do not mean anything special, it’s not a big deal, right? They argue that κύριος does not necessarily refer to Adonai, and thus ultimately to Yahweh, and that θεός may also have a more general meaning. But is this really what the apostles meant by using these terms?
In Ancient Greek, to convey "master" or "lord" in non-divine sense while avoiding the connotations of κύριος (kyrios), you could use:
- δεσπότης (despotes) - This term generally means "master" or "lord" in the sense of a ruler or one with authority over a household or dependents. While it can have hierarchical connotations, it is less tied to divinity in classical contexts.
- ἄναξ (anax) - This is a poetic or noble term often translated as "lord" or "master." It has heroic or noble associations, especially in Homeric contexts.
- ἄρχων (archon) - Meaning "ruler" or "chief," this term could be used for someone with authority in a civic or administrative role.
- ἡγεμών (hēgemṓn): Meaning "leader" or "governor," though it often denoted a political or military leader rather than a personal "lord" or "master."
The best choice depends on the context and the specific nuances you want to convey about the relationship or setting. δεσπότης is probably the closest neutral alternative in most general uses.
Question: if the apostles wanted to avoid Christ being understood as a divine Lord in the proper sense, and wanted to avoid the YHWH-Adonai association, why didn't they use one of these terms instead of κύριος?
But likewise, the apostles repeatedly call Christ θεός, and instead, numerous expressions would have been available if they wanted to express that he was partly divine, godlike, kind of god:
- θεῖος (theios): "Divine," "godlike," or "of the gods." Often used adjectivally to describe something extraordinary, inspired, or blessed by the gods, such as divine wisdom (θεῖα σοφία). It does not imply the being is a full deity. This term works well for attributing divine qualities without implying the individual is a full god.
- ἡμίθεος (hemitheos): "Demigod," literally "half-god. Used for mythological figures, typically heroes or mortals with divine parentage or divine favor. For example, Heracles is referred to as a ἡμίθεος. This explicitly signals a partial divinity or divine favor, emphasizing a lower status than a full deity.
- ἥρως (hērōs): "Hero," a mortal of exceptional ability, often regarded as semi-divine. Heroes like Achilles or Odysseus were sometimes venerated and associated with divine qualities. While primarily mortal, ἥρως carries connotations of extraordinary, divine-like qualities.
- θεϊκός / θεϊνός (theïkos / theinos): "Godlike," "pertaining to a god." These adjectival forms emphasize qualities that resemble those of a deity but do not imply full divinity. For example, extraordinary beauty or wisdom could be described as θεϊκή. Flexible for metaphorical or partial divine associations.
- θεώτερος (theōteros): "More divine." Comparative form, used to imply that someone or something is more divine or godlike than others, but not absolutely divine. It highlights relative, rather than absolute, divinity.
- δαίμων (daimōn): Originally referred to a spirit or lesser deity, often a personal or local divine force. Associated with a range of supernatural beings, not inherently good or evil. In later usage, particularly in Christian contexts, it took on a negative connotation (as "demon"), but in classical texts, it was more neutral. Suitable for referring to a lower-order divine being or a guiding force without implying supreme authority.
Question: if the apostles really wanted to avoid understanding Christ as God in the absolute, monadic sense, then why didn't they use one of the terms instead of θεός?