"God, who at various times and in diverse ways spoke long ago to the fathers through the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, . . . . " (Heb 1:1)
In other words, God NOW speaks through his Son,
WTF? Why would anyone conclude that THESE LAST DAYS (recorded circa 50 AD) has anything to do with NOW?
Of course, persons of every time period of those 2000 years have concluded that THESE LAST DAYS applied to their time period. Seems like all the evidence suggests that they all were wrong.
Some things never change.