mP:
You make some good points about the prevalence of same-sex behavior in Bible times, which is well documented. However, many uninformed people tend to equate that behavior with homosexuality. That couldn't be further from the truth. Many of the men in ancient times who practiced such same-sex behavior were married to women. Recent research has shown that less than 4% of the U.S. population is gay. But reports have shown that between 10%-13% of men who identify as straight admit to having occasional same-sex enounters. Yes, there are actually more straight people engaging in same-sex activity than gays! This may come as a surprise to many, but just peruse Craigslist and see how many straight or married individuals are seeking a same-sex encounter. This doesn't make them gay, anymore than if a gay person having heterosexual relations would be straight. Most men in prisons are straight and yet their same-sex activities are pretty well known. It's likely the percentages were similar in ancient times.
So when the OT says that men should "not lie with a man as one lies with a woman," to whom were these words actually directed? To straight men or gay men? And why are the words "men who lie with men" almost always given in the context of worshipping false gods? Just read the surrounding verses and chapters and see. Until religious homophobes can answer these questions, they are being awfully presumptuous and really have no idea what they are talking about. The Governing Body is especially guilty of such ignorance and wrecklessness with the Bible because they claim to be God's anointed mouthpiece.