Earnest wrote:
"other Greek texts were also consulted"
Yes, that is my point. Why just 'consult' other texts, why not use them?, and not base thier translation on an outdated greek text? Beside, I don't really believe that other texts really was consulted, maybe they checked some words to see which greek text that bests supports thier own interpretaion and use that word from a different text, a little cut'n paste job.
I've ordered some greek texts and I will compare them, If I find anything peculiar or different in the kingdom interlinear, I will post it here.
"I should also add that I do not believe there is any credibility in the suggestion that the WTS does not want to admit recent textual evidence."
I would like to see that with my own eyes first... then I will believe it.
And one more very interesting thing you can explain to me earnest: Why doesn't the NWT translation use "Gods proper name" in Philippians 2:11? The NWT use the word Lord here for the greek kyrios, while according to their own kingdom interlinear translation, the correct translation should be Jehovah, not Lord.
See for yourself, KIT page 11-12: "How may modern tranlators determine when to render the Greek words Kyrios and Theos as the divine name? By determining where the inspired Christian writers have quoted from the Hebrew Scriptures. Then they must refer back to the Hebrew text to locate whether the divine name appears there."
So then, lets take a look at Philippians 2:9-11:
"For this very reason also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every [other] name, 10 so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground, 11 and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father."
and compare it with the qouted text from the Hebrew (Isaiah 45:22-23):
"22 "Turn to me and be saved, all YOU [at the] ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is no one else. 23 By my own self I have swornout of my own mouth in righteousness the word has gone forth, so that it will not returnthat to me every knee will bend down, every tongue will swear,"
Now we know that the correct translation would be :
"and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Jehovah to the glory of God the Father"
You might also wonder why Jesus would be given the name that is "above every name", isn't that Jehovah? Why has the NWT inserted the word 'other' here? it's not in the originals, that's a fact.